Integumentary, Hematologic, Oncologic & GI Systems Review

These question-and-answer flashcards cover key diagnostic tests, skin disorders, burn calculations, hematologic values, transfusion reactions, anemias, oncologic emergencies, and major GI conditions discussed in the lecture notes to aid exam preparation.

What does a Wood’s light examination help diagnose?

Fungal infections of the scalp and chronic bacterial infections such as erythrasma in major skin folds.

How do fungal lesions and erythrasma appear under Wood’s light?

They fluoresce (glow) when exposed to the ultraviolet light.

Which skin components decrease with age leading to wrinkles and sagging?

Elastic fibers and subcutaneous adipose tissue.

Which age-related skin change causes slower wound healing?

Loss of collagen fibers makes skin more fragile and slower to repair.

Why are older adults at higher risk of sunburn and skin cancer?

Reduced melanocyte activity lowers natural UV protection.

What minimum SPF is recommended for daily sun protection?

At least SPF 30.

How long before sun exposure should sunscreen be applied?

15–30 minutes beforehand.

How often should sunscreen be reapplied?

Every 2 hours (or after swimming/sweating).

During what hours should direct sun exposure be avoided?

Roughly 10 AM-2 PM (or 11-3 depending on source).

Why don’t light, loosely woven clothes guarantee sun protection?

UV rays can pass through the large weave gaps.

About how long does it take for a sunburn to become obvious?

6–8 hours after exposure.

Describe the characteristic appearance of psoriasis plaques.

Inflamed, edematous lesions covered with silvery-white scales that are red, flaky, and often itchy.

Name two systemic manifestations possible with psoriasis.

Joint involvement and psoriatic arthritis.

What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for psoriasis?

Topical corticosteroid creams.

Which antimetabolite used for psoriasis carries a black-box warning for suicidal ideation?

Methotrexate.

What is the primary prevention strategy for contact dermatitis?

Identify and avoid the triggering substance (e.g., laundry soap, nickel, etc.).

Give two key teaching points for atopic dermatitis care.

Use moisturizers/loose clothing and take antihistamines or topical steroids; avoid scratching and known irritants.

What causes intertrigo and how is it primarily managed?

Skin-to-skin friction in moist folds; keep the area clean, dry, and use non-cream barriers or fabric (e.g., pillowcases) between folds.

What microorganism most commonly causes cellulitis?

Staphylococcus aureus (often including MRSA).

Describe the appearance of a furuncle.

A painful, inflamed boil originating in a hair follicle, usually with a single core of pus.

What is a carbuncle?

A collection of interconnected furuncles with multiple pus-draining heads.

List the basic steps in treating furuncles/carbuncles.

Warm compresses, incision and drainage, removal of necrotic tissue, and systemic antibiotics.

State two patient hygiene instructions to prevent recurrent skin infections.

Use clean towels/washcloths daily and avoid applying cosmetics/OTC products to affected areas.

Where are lesions of HSV-1 typically located?

Around the mouth (oral herpes).

What is the recommended antiviral window for treating an HSV outbreak?

Begin antivirals such as valacyclovir within the first 24 hours of symptom onset.

Give two patient education points for herpes simplex virus.

Practice hand hygiene and avoid sharing items like lip gloss or toothbrushes; use protection or abstain during outbreaks.

What is the priority in managing a patient with herpes zoster (shingles)?

Early diagnosis and prompt antiviral treatment to reduce complications and pain.

List the components of the ABCDE rule for suspicious skin lesions.

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6 mm, Evolution (change).

How does basal cell carcinoma typically appear?

A pearly white, translucent or waxy papule or nodule.

Which type of non-melanoma skin cancer has the highest metastasis risk?

Squamous cell carcinoma.

What is the most lethal form of skin cancer?

Malignant melanoma.

Write the Parkland formula for initial burn fluid resuscitation.

4 mL × body weight (kg) × %TBSA burned.

How is fluid from the Parkland calculation divided over time?

Give half in the first 8 hours, the remaining half over the next 16 hours.

What are the two major priorities during the acute phase of burn management?

Airway maintenance and fluid resuscitation.

Give the normal hemoglobin range for adult females.

12–16 g/dL.

What platelet count defines thrombocytopenia?

Less than 150,000 /µL.

At what WBC count is a patient considered immunocompromised?

Below 5,000 /µL (especially <3,000 /µL).

What should be done immediately when a severe transfusion reaction is suspected?

Stop the transfusion, keep IV line open with normal saline using new tubing, notify provider, and send blood back to the bank.

Name two symptoms of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.

Chills/fever and low back (flank) pain; may progress to hypotension, dark urine, or shock.

Which medication stimulates red blood cell production in anemia of chronic disease?

Epoetin alfa (EPO).

What side effect should be monitored with epoetin alfa therapy?

Transient hypertension.

List two dietary sources rich in iron.

Lean beef and spinach (others: liver, egg yolk, raisins, etc.).

Why should vitamin C be taken with oral iron supplements?

It enhances iron absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.

What oral finding is characteristic of megaloblastic (B12) anemia?

A beefy red, swollen tongue (glossitis) that may tingle or burn.

What is the primary treatment for aplastic anemia?

Bone marrow (stem-cell) transplant, with neutropenia precautions during the process.

What is a key clinical sign of polycythemia vera?

Ruddy (reddish-purplish) facial complexion and lips.

How is polycythemia vera commonly managed to reduce blood viscosity?

Regular phlebotomy (blood removal), hydration, aspirin, and sometimes antineoplastic agents.

Which coagulation labs are typically elevated in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

PT, aPTT, INR, and D-dimer (while platelets, hemoglobin, and fibrinogen are low).

What skeletal complication makes multiple myeloma patients high-risk for injury?

Pathologic bone fractures due to bone destruction by malignant plasma cells.

In leukemia, which two complications are nurses most concerned about?

Infection (from neutropenia) and bleeding (from thrombocytopenia).

What skin finding is commonly seen with thrombocytopenia?

Purpura and ecchymoses (easy bruising/purple spots).

What type of cell is diagnostic for Hodgkin lymphoma?

Reed-Sternberg (R-S) cell.

Describe the characteristic facial rash of systemic lupus erythematosus.

Butterfly (malar) rash across the cheeks and bridge of the nose.

Give three neutropenic precautions for a patient with WBC <500 /µL.

No fresh flowers, mask and hand hygiene for visitors, avoid raw fruits/vegetables unless thoroughly washed (or avoid completely).

List two methods to prevent HIV transmission.

Consistent condom use (safe sex) and not sharing needles.

What early symptom pattern often signals initial HIV infection?

Flu-like illness with fever, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes.

Which opportunistic infection in HIV can cause loss of night vision?

Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis.

Name one airborne-precaution opportunistic infection seen in AIDS patients.

Tuberculosis (TB).

Which age and demographic group is at highest risk for testicular cancer?

Young white males, especially with a family history or HIV positive status.

What permanent skin marking must not be removed during external radiation therapy?

The small tattoo or ink marking that delineates the radiation field.

State two key nursing interventions if an internal radiation implant becomes dislodged.

Use lead tongs to place the implant in a lead container and notify radiation oncology immediately; maintain time-distance-shielding precautions.

What electrolyte imbalance is the most dangerous component of tumor lysis syndrome?

Hyperkalemia (high potassium).

List two hallmark symptoms of superior vena cava syndrome.

Facial/upper-extremity edema and shortness of breath (may also have engorged neck veins or cough).

Which medication is given to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy?

Lactulose.

How is pain typically described in acute pancreatitis and what relieves it?

Severe epigastric or upper-left-quadrant pain that worsens with eating and is relieved by sitting up or leaning forward.

What does a Wood’s light examination help diagnose?

Fungal infections of the scalp and chronic bacterial infections such as erythrasma in major skin folds.

How do fungal lesions and erythrasma appear under Wood’s light?

They fluoresce (glow) when exposed to the ultraviolet light.

Which skin components decrease with age leading to wrinkles and sagging?

Elastic fibers and subcutaneous adipose tissue.

Which age-related skin change causes slower wound healing?

Loss of collagen fibers makes skin more fragile and slower to repair.

Why are older adults at higher risk of sunburn and skin cancer?

Reduced melanocyte activity lowers natural UV protection.

What minimum SPF is recommended for daily sun protection?

At least SPF 30.

How long before sun exposure should sunscreen be applied?

15–30 minutes beforehand.

How often should sunscreen be reapplied?

Every 2 hours (or after swimming/sweating).

During what hours should direct sun exposure be avoided?

Roughly 10 AM-2 PM (or 11-3 depending on source).

Why don’t light, loosely woven clothes guarantee sun protection?

UV rays can pass through the large weave gaps.

About how long does it take for a sunburn to become obvious?

6–8 hours after exposure.

Describe the characteristic appearance of psoriasis plaques.

Inflamed, edematous lesions covered with silvery-white scales that are red, flaky, and often itchy.

Name two systemic manifestations possible with psoriasis.

Joint involvement and psoriatic arthritis.

What is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for psoriasis?

Topical corticosteroid creams.

Which antimetabolite used for psoriasis carries a black-box warning for suicidal ideation?

Methotrexate.

What is the primary prevention strategy for contact dermatitis?

Identify and avoid the triggering substance (e.g., laundry soap, nickel, etc.).

Give two key teaching points for atopic dermatitis care.

Use moisturizers/loose clothing and take antihistamines or topical steroids; avoid scratching and known irritants.

What causes intertrigo and how is it primarily managed?

Skin-to-skin friction in moist folds; keep the area clean, dry, and use non-cream barriers or fabric (e.g., pillowcases) between folds.

What microorganism most commonly causes cellulitis?

Staphylococcus aureus (often including MRSA).

Describe the appearance of a furuncle.

A painful, inflamed boil originating in a hair follicle, usually with a single core of pus.

What is a carbuncle?

A collection of interconnected furuncles with multiple pus-draining heads.

List the basic steps in treating furuncles/carbuncles.

Warm compresses, incision and drainage, removal of necrotic tissue, and systemic antibiotics.

State two patient hygiene instructions to prevent recurrent skin infections.

Use clean towels/washcloths daily and avoid applying cosmetics/OTC products to affected areas.

Where are lesions of HSV-1 typically located?

Around the mouth (oral herpes).

What is the recommended antiviral window for treating an HSV outbreak?

Begin antivirals such as valacyclovir within the first 24 hours of symptom onset.

Give two patient education points for herpes simplex virus.

Practice hand hygiene and avoid sharing items like lip gloss or toothbrushes; use protection or abstain during outbreaks.

What is the priority in managing a patient with herpes zoster (shingles)?

Early diagnosis and prompt antiviral treatment to reduce complications and pain.

List the components of the ABCDE rule for suspicious skin lesions.

Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6 mm, Evolution (change).

How does basal cell carcinoma typically appear?

A pearly white, translucent or waxy papule or nodule.

Which type of non-melanoma skin cancer has the highest metastasis risk?

Squamous cell carcinoma.

What is the most lethal form of skin cancer?

Malignant melanoma.

Write the Parkland formula for initial burn fluid resuscitation.

4 mL × body weight (kg) × %TBSA burned.

How is fluid from the Parkland calculation divided over time?

Give half in the first 8 hours, the remaining half over the next 16 hours.

What are the two major priorities during the acute phase of burn management?

Airway maintenance and fluid resuscitation.

Give the normal hemoglobin range for adult females.

12–16 g/dL.