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227 Terms

1
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Which blood type is considered the universal donor?

O-

2
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Glossopharyngeal (CN IX)

taste, gag reflex

3
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Vagus (CN X)

gag reflex, parasympathetic innervation

4
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Accessory (CN XI)

Sternocleidomastoid & Trapezius (movement)

5
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Vestibulocochlear (CN VIII)

hearing, balance

6
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Hypoglossal (CN XII)

Tongue (movement)

7
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Facial (CN VII)

facial expression, taste

8
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Abducens (CN VI)

abducts the eye

9
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Trigeminal (CN V)

face sensation, mastication

10
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Trochlear (CN IV)

moves eyes to look at nose

11
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Oculomotor (CN III)

most eye movement

12
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What leukocytes are considered agranulocytes?

Monocytes

Lymphocytes

13
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Which plasma proteins play a role in transporting different substances and secreting antibodies to combat pathogens?

Globins

14
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What leukocytes aggressively phagocytize bacteria and release antimicrobial chemicals?

Neutrophils

15
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What proteins are involved in blood clotting?

Thrombin

Fibrinogen

16
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What substances are required for the production of red blood cells?

Copper

Iron

Vit B12

17
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During blood centrifugation which component of blood settles at the bottom of the tube?

Erythrocytes

18
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Which organ secretes most of the hormone necessary for the formation of new red blood cells?

Kidney

19
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During which cellular stage is DNA replicated?

S phase

20
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Which type of chemical reaction consists of breaking down large molecules into smaller ones?

Decomposition

21
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Most homeostatic regulatory mechanisms involve which feedback system?

Negative

22
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Which of the following macromolecules plays a specific role in producing sex steroids?

Cholesterol

23
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A molecule that has an unequal number of protons and neutrons is known as an

Isotope

24
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Which organelle specializes in packaging, transporting, and modifying proteins produced by the rough ER?

Golgi apparatus

25
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What are forms of passive transport?

Simple diffusion

Osmosis

26
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Which molecule makes up the majority of the plasma membrane?

Phospholipids

27
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What is the name of the serous membrane that lines the surface of the stomach?

Visceral peritoneum

28
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Which of the following structures are found in the ventricles and pull on the chordae tendinea upon contraction, preventing the AV valves from flipping? 

Papillary muscles

29
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De-oxygenated blood returning to the heart from the systemic circulation will empty into the right atrium via which blood vessels?

Superior vena cava

Inferior vena cava

30
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Which of the following structures prevents the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle?

Aortic valve

31
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Which component of the cardiac conduction system is known as the heart’s natural pacemaker? 

SA node

32
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Which valves are open when the heart is in ventricular systole?

Aortic valve

Pulmonary valve

33
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Which of the following volumes represents the maximum amount of blood that the ventricles can hold?

End-diastolic volume (EDV)

34
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Which of the following layers consists of cardiac muscle that produces the wringing motion during contraction? 

Myocardium

35
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The ___________ carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. 

pulmonary veins

36
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Which of the following bones do we sit on?

Ischium

37
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Which glands have ducts that open onto a hair follicle and secrete an odorous, milky sweat?

Apocrine glands

38
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Which of the following layers of the epidermis undergoes mitosis to replace damaged or lost cells, pushing old cells upward to be shed?

Stratum basale

39
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What does the extracellular matrix consist of?

Protein fibers

Ground substance

40
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Most glands are composed of which type of tissue?

Epithelial tissue

41
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Which of the following cells of nervous tissue are responsible for generating electrical impulses? 

Neurons

42
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bones that undergo intramembranous ossification

Lacrimal bone

Ethmoid bone

Clavicle

Frontal bone

43
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Which hormone will stimulate osteoclasts to break down bone to help increase blood calcium levels? 

Parathyroid hormone

44
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What type of solution would cause water to enter red blood cells, causing the cells to swell and potentially burst? 

Hypotonic solution

45
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Which of the following structures monitors blood pressure?

Carotid sinus

46
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Which of the following variables would result in decreased blood pressure?

Parasympathetic innervation

Vasodilation

Decreased blood volume

47
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Blood in the common carotid artery will flow into which blood vessel next?

Internal carotid artery

48
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Which layer of the blood vessel wall directly touches blood and acts as a permeable membrane for the exchange of materials?

Tunica interna

49
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Which types of capillaries create an uninterrupted lining that allows the passage of small substances via simple diffusion?

Continuous capillaries

50
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Which artery is commonly used to measure blood pressure?

Brachial artery

51
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Which of the following peripheral resistance factors can be controlled quickly to adjust blood flow? 

Vessel radius

52
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What is the force that draws fluid back into the capillary at the venous end?

Colloid osmotic pressure

53
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The appendicular skeleton

includes the bones of the limbs and the girdles that attach them to the axial skeleton, such as the humerus, scaphoid, and tibia.

54
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What are two of the main minerals found in bone matrix?

Calcium and phosphorus

55
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Which layer of the epidermis forms calluses in response to abrasion and repetitive friction?

Stratum corneum

56
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What is the name of the fibrous covering on the internal surface of bone, lining the medullary cavity?

Endosteum

57
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What is the functional classification of the shoulder joint?

Diarthrosis

58
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The joint between teeth and its socket can be structurally classified as what specific type of fibrous joint?

Gomphosis

59
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Metaphysis

contains the epiphyseal plate

60
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Epiphysis

ends of bone

61
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Periosteum

fibrous covering on the external surface of bone

62
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Diaphysis

stores yellow bone marrow

63
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Which of the following bone cells is responsible for secreting the matrix of osseous tissue?

Osteoblasts

64
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___ ossification replaces a connective tissue membrane with bone.

Intramembranous

65
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When performing a physical assessment of the client in the early stages of Hodgkin's disease (type of lymphatic cancer), which of the following is most likely found by the nurse when palpating the patient's lymph nodes? 

Enlarged, painless, firm lymph nodes

66
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Excess fluid recovered from tissues will enter which structure first?

Lymphatic capillaries

67
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Lymph in the thoracic duct will drain where next?

Subclavian vein

68
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Which lymphatic organ is involved in the maturation of B lymphocytes? 

Red bone marrow

69
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a characteristic feature of lymphatic vessels? 

Thin walls with high elasticity

70
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During the ____________ phase of an action potential, Na+ is entering the cell, causing the membrane potential to become more positive.  

depolarization

71
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The layer of connective tissue surrounding an individual muscle fiber is the _____.

endomysium

72
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Which of the following statements best describes the meaning of a cross-bridge in the process of a muscle contraction?

Myosin head attaching to the myosin binding sites of actin

73
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Which of the following structures of muscle fibers act as a calcium reservoir?

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

74
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The ability of muscular tissue to shorten is known as _________.

Contractility

75
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Which of the following muscles are part of the quadriceps?

Vastus lateralis

Rectus femoris

Vastus medialis

76
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term that best describes the process of actin sliding across the myosin filament?

Power stroke

77
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The ______ nervous system consists of only the brain and spinal cord.

central

78
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The area of a sarcomere that consists of only thin filaments is known as the _______.

I-band

79
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Which cells are the effectors responsible for cellular immunity? 

Cytotoxic T cells

80
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Which of the following characteristics is true regarding vaccines?

Contains dead pathogens

Type of artificial active immunity

81
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During a primary immune response, _________ is initially made for a few days, followed by ___________. When re-exposed to the same antigen, ___________ is the main antibody produced quickly before symptoms can have a chance to start.  

 

IgM

IgG

IgG

82
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What is the primary function of interferons in the immune system? 

Activate antiviral defenses in nearby cells

83
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Which of the following cells bind to MHC I proteins? 

Cytotoxic T cells

84
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_____ channels respond to changes in membrane potential. 

Voltage-gated

85
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Calcium must bind to which protein to initiate muscle contraction? 

 Troponin

86
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Which of the following best describes the type of contraction in which a muscle remains the same length as it maintains tension?  

Isometric contraction

87
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Which of the following mechanisms provide energy for a muscle contraction for about 40-50 seconds?

Glycolysis

88
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Which division of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for sending signals from the brain and spinal cord to effectors?

Efferent division

89
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The receptor cells for olfaction are located in the ______

Olfactory epithelium

90
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Which of the following regulatory proteins covers the myosin-binding sites on actin? 

Tropomyosin

91
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The area of the retina that is densely concentrated with cones and is the center of highest visual acuity is known as the ______

 Fovea centralis

92
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Which of the following components are part of the upper respiratory tract?

Nasal conchae, Vocal folds, Oropharynx

93
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Which structure is considered part of the digestive and respiratory organ systems? 

Oropharynx

94
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Which of the following muscles are involved in expiration?

Rectus abdominis, Diaphragm, Internal intercostals

95
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Which of the following layers is found lining the surface of the lungs? 

Visceral pleura

96
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What structure in the upper respiratory division plays an important role in warming and humidifying inspired air? 

Nasal conchae

97
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Which alveolar cells secrete pulmonary surfactant? 

Great alveolar cells

98
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Which nerve innervates the prime muscle of respiration? 

Phrenic nerve

99
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Gases move across the respiratory membrane between tissues and blood via which transport mechanism? 

Simple diffusion

100
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Which of the following lobes of the brain contains the primary visual cortex? 

Occipital