Mosby's Comprehensive Review of Radiography: Challenge Test 1

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Last updated 9:37 PM on 3/14/26
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200 Terms

1
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Attenuation:

describes changes in the x-ray beam as it travels through the patient

2
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Which photon-tissue interaction makes radiography

possible because of its creation of contrast?

photoelectric

3
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Which photon-tissue interaction produces radiation that may expose others in the room during fluoroscopy?

compton

4
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The unit of radiation absorbed in air is the:

gray(a)

5
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The unit of radioactivity is the:

becquerel

6
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The unit of effective dose is the:

sievert

7
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Linear energy transfer:

varies for different types of radiation

8
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The unit of Bq would be used in what imaging modality?

nuclear medicine

9
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Medical x-rays are an example of:

nonionizing radiation

10
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Graphs that show the relationship between radiation received and the organism's responses are called:

exposure curves

11
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Cataractogenesis does not occur at low levels of radiation exposure; it is best expressed by which of the following dose-response relationships?

threshold

12
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"Increased dose equals increased probability of effects" best describes which of the following?

stochastic effects

13
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The cumulative occupational exposure for a 22-year-old radiographer is:

220 mSv

14
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The annual effective dose limit for the general public, assuming frequent exposure, is:

1.0 mSv

15
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The secondary protective barrier used in room shielding must be at least how thick?

{1⁄32}-inch Pb equivalent

16
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If the air kerma measured 6 feet from the x-ray table is 5 Graya, what is the air kerma measured at a distance of 3 feet?

1.25 Gray(a)

17
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The intensity of the scattered beam is 1⁄1000 the intensity of the primary beam at a ________ angle 1 m from the patient.

45-degree

18
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The minimum source-to-skin distance for fixed fluoro scopes is:

15 inches

19
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When increased dose equals increased severity of tissue reactions, this is called:

deterministic

20
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"Cells that are oxygenated are more susceptible to radiation damage"; this describes:

oxygen enhancement ratio

21
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The blood count is depressed after a whole-body dose equivalent of at least how many mSv?

0.25 mSv

22
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Highly reactive ions that have unpaired electrons in the outer shell are called:

free radicals

23
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The master molecule that directs cell activities is:

DNA

24
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The process of somatic cell division is called:

mitosis

25
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The most common effect from exposure to ionizing radiation is:

a. Mutations

b. Ionization of atoms in the cells

c. Cell death

d. Nothing

Although all of these effects may occur, the most common result of LET is no effect. Nevertheless, ALARA must still be practiced.

26
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Most radiation-induced damage to cells occurs:

at doses of radiation much higher than doses used in radiography

27
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Radiation doses up to ________ are considered relatively low risk to the embryo and fetus.

5 mSv

28
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A concept of radiologic practice that encourages radiation users to adopt measures that keep the dose to the patient and themselves at minimum levels is called:

ALARA

29
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Which of the following is (are) relatively insensitive to radiation?

nerve tissue

30
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Somatic effects of radiation:

are cause when a large dose of high-LET radiation is received by a large area of the body

31
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The best way to keep the radiation dose to the patient low is:

avoidance of repeat exposures

32
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X-rays may remove electrons from atoms in the body by a process called:

ionization

33
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Ionization may cause:

unstable atoms

34
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Cell damage may be exhibited as:

loss of function or abnormal function

35
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Damage to the cell being irradiated is called:

somatic

36
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Radiation effects that show up in the next generation are called:

genetic

37
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Radiation that is contained in the environment is called:

natural background

38
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Background radiation is the source of approximately what percent of human exposure?

50%

39
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The annual effective dose per person from natural background radiation is approximately:

3.0 mSv

40
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The greatest source of natural background radiation to humans is:

Radon

41
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According to NCRP Report #160, the increase in total exposure is primarily attributed to increased use of:

CT

42
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What barrier must be at least 1⁄16-inch lead equivalent?

primary protective barrier

43
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CT accounts for approximately what percent dose to the population (NCRP Report #160)?

24%

44
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Meiosis describes the process of division of what type of cells?

germ

45
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What refers to the lifetime-accumulated occupational dose?

cumulative effective dose

46
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Exposure times longer than ______ minutes can lead to skin effects.

30

47
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What provides an approximate skin dose where the x-ray beam is entering the patient?

air kerma

48
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The preferred term for radiation exposure is:

sievert

49
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Effective dose limits may be found in what published material?

NCRP reports

50
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Photon-cell interactions occur:

by chance

51
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The smallest particle of an element that retains the characteristics of the element is a(n):

atom

52
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Atomic mass refers to

the number of protons plus the number of neutrons

53
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X-rays travel as bundles of energy called:

photons

54
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The height of a sine wave is called the:

amplitude

55
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The transformer that operates on the principle of self-induction is the:

autotransformer

56
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Electronic timers used in x-ray equipment allow for

exposure times as short as:

1⁄1000 second

57
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To ensure consistency of radiographic quality from one exposure to the next, what device may be used?

automatic exposure control

58
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An x-ray machine that uses a continually decreasing mA for the shortest times possible uses a(n):

falling load generator

59
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Devices in the x-ray circuit that operate on the principle of mutual induction are called:

transformers

60
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The high-voltage section of the x-ray circuit makes use of what type of transformer

step-up

61
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The device in the x-ray circuit that changes AC to DC is the:

rectifier

62
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What type of current is required for proper operation of the x-ray tube?

direct

63
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The result of thermionic emission is a(n):

electron cloud

64
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The focusing cup is located at the:

cathode

65
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An interaction that produces x-rays at the anode as a result of outer shell electrons filling holes in the K-shell is called:

characteristic

66
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In digital fluoroscopy, the image should be viewed on what device to take advantage of the digital capabilities?

high-resolution monitor

67
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A primary advantage of digital fluoroscopy is:

postprocessing manipulation of the image

68
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In digital fluoroscopy and computed radiography, the energy must be changed to a digital form by a(n):

analog-to-digital converter

69
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An algorithm is:

a mathematical formula used to reconstruct the image in digital imaging

70
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In computed radiography, each pixel corresponds to a shade of gray representing an area in the patient known as a(n):

voxel

71
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Lightness and darkness of the image in computed radiography may be adjusted by:

adjusting the window level

72
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The window level in computed radiography is the:

midpoint of densities

73
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Radiographic contrast in computed radiography may be adjusted by changing the:

window width

74
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The amount of receptor exposure is controlled primarily by:

mAs

75
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The visible image may also be called the:

manifest image

76
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The quantity of x-rays produced is directly controlled by:

mAs

77
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The rule or law that governs changing technique using kVp is the:

15% rule

78
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If SID is halved, what may be said about receptor exposure?

receptor exposure is quadrupled

79
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Distortion that affects the size of the object as represented on the radiographic image is called:

magnification

80
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Shape distortion may take the form of:

elongation and foreshortening

81
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A longer than usual OID may cause:

magnification

82
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CR cassettes should be erased at least:

every 24 hours

83
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The equation H/D describes:

grid ratio

84
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If the exposure field is not accurately recognized, the histogram:

widens

85
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Noise increases with an increase in

speed class

86
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Edge enhancement provides:

artificial increase in display contrast at an edge of the image

87
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Which of the following grid errors would result in an image that shows normal exposure in the middle but decreased exposure on the sides and may follow removal and replacement of the grid?

upside down

88
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Grid frequency is described as the:

number of lead strips per inch or centimeter

89
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When working with CR and DR, one must be aware that their response to scatter radiation is:

very sensitive

90
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The images on radiologists' monitors appear:

in greater detail than on radiographers’ monitors

91
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A histogram analysis error may be caused by:

inappropriate collimation

92
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Smoothing provides:

evenness in brightness

93
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Consistency of image appearance is achieved through the use of:

uniform processing codes

94
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Which of the following sets of exposure factors would produce an image with the poorest spatial resolution?

a. 60 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

b. 30 mAs, 92 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

c. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID

d. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

C

95
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Which of the following sets of exposure factors would produce an image with the best spatial resolution?

a. 60 mAs, 80 kVp, 72-inch SID, 4-inch OID

b. 30 mAs, 92 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

c. 120 mAs, 92 kVp, 20-inch SID, 4-inch OID

d. 15 mAs, 100 kVp, 40-inch SID, 4-inch OID

A

96
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Beam restriction has the following effect on contrast:

shorter scale of contrast

97
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As kVp increases, there is an increased production of:

short wavelengths

98
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The relationship between kVp and receptor exposures:

direct, although not proportional

99
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Grids that have strips angled to coincide with divergence of the x-ray beam are called:

focused

100
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In digital imaging, the radiographer must be aware that:

the image is determined by the total exposure

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