Uark Kral General Microbiology Chapter 4 Multiple Choice Questions

Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT

inflammation

phagocytosis

activation of complement

production of interferon

production of antibody

production of antibody

Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways EXCEPT

they change the pH of the environment

they produce antibacterial chemicals

they produce lysozyme

they make the chemical environment unsuitable for nonresident bacteria

they compete with pathogens for nutrients

they produce lysozyme

Macrophages arise from which of the following?

neutrophils

basophils

lymphocytes

monocytes

eosinophils

monocytes

Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?

basophils

neutrophils

eosinophils

macrophages

erythrocytes

macrophages

All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT

redness

pain

fever

vasodilation

swelling

fever

A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?

lysosome

normal skin flora

acidic skin secretions

phagocytosis in the inflammatory response

mucociliary escalator

phagocytosis in the inflammatory response

All of the following pertain to fever EXCEPT that it

can be initiated by specific types of pathogens

stimulates T lymphocyte activity

intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons

accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract

is caused by interleukin-1 and TNF-alpha coming into contact with the hypothalamus

accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract.

Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT

increased blood vessel permeability

increased phagocytic activity

bacterial cell lysis

interference with viral replication

opsonization

interference with viral replication

The ID50 is

the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population

a measure of pathogenicity.the dose that will kill some of the test population

the dose that will cause an infection in some of the test population

the dose that will kill 50 percent of the test population

the dose that will cause an infection in 50 percent of the test population

Most pathogens that gain access through the skin

enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts

must be injected

can penetrate intact skin

must adhere first while their invasive factors allow them to penetrate

just infect the skin itself

just infect the skin itself

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

skin

mucous membranes of the respiratory tract

mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract

parenteral route

All of these portals are used equally

mucous membranes of the respiratory tract

Which is NOT specifically employed by pathogens to avoid destruction by phagocytosis?

forming biofilms

possessing ability to remain dormant within a phagocyte

producing a capsule

possessing ability to replicate within a phagolysosome

producing superantigens

producing superantigens

The best description of direct damage by a pathogen is

capsule components of pathogens kill cells

poisonous substances secreted by viruses kill cells

host cells destroyed when pathogens metabolize and multiply

protein synthesis is interrupted by toxins

superantigens cause cytokine release which then cause symptoms of disease

host cells destroyed when pathogens metabolize and multiply

All of the following bacteria release endotoxin EXCEPT

Neisseria meningitidis

Salmonella Typhi

Proteus vulgaris

Clostridium botulinum

Haemophilus influenzae

Clostridium botulinum

Twenty-five people developed symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea three to six hours after attending a church picnic where they ate a ham and green bean casserole with cream sauce. The most likely cause of this case of food intoxication is

botulinum toxin

erythrogenic toxin

cholera toxin

aflatoxin

staphylococcal enterotoxin

staphylococcal enterotoxin

Lysogenic bacteriophages contribute to bacterial virulence because bacteriophages

produce toxins

kill the bacteria, causing release of endotoxins

give new gene sequences to the host bacteria

carry plasmids

kill human cells

give new gene sequences to the host bacteria

All of the following organisms produce exotoxins EXCEPT

Staphylococcus aureus

Clostridium tetani

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Clostridium botulinum

Salmonella typhi

Salmonella typhi

Botulism is caused by ingestion of a proteinaceous exotoxin; therefore, it can easily be prevented by

administering antibiotics to patients

preventing fecal contamination of food

boiling food prior to consumption

filtering food

not eating canned food

boiling food prior to consumption

Endotoxins are

molecules that bind nerve cells

excreted from the cell

A-B toxins

part of the gram-negative cell wall

associated with gram-positive bacteria

part of the gram-negative cell wall

The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination?

IgM

IgE

IgG

IgD

IgA

IgM

In the figure, which areas represent antigen-binding sites?

a and c

b and d

c and d

b and c

a and b

a and b

Which of the following is the best definition of antigen?

something foreign in the body

a pathogen

a protein that combines with antibodies

a chemical that combines with antibodies

a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies

a chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies

The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is

IgD

IgG

IgA

IgE

IgM

IgG

Large antibodies that agglutinate antigens are

IgA

IgD

IgG

IgE

IgM

IgM

In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are

IgE

IgD

IgM

IgA

None of the above answers is correct

IgM

The antibodies found almost entirely and only on the surface of B cells (not secreted from them), and which always exist as monomers, are

IgD

IgE

IgA

IgM

IgG

IgD

The antibodies found in mucus, saliva, and tears are

IgD

IgM

IgA

IgE

IgG

IgA

Which of the following is the best definition of epitope?

specific regions on antigens that interact with T-cell receptors

specific regions on antigens that interact with haptens

specific regions on antigens that interact with perforins

specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies

specific regions on antigens that interact with MHC class molecules

specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies

Plasma cells are activated by a(n)

antigen

B cell

memory cell

T cell

APC

antigen

When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as

opsonization

ADCC

neutralization

apoptosis

agglutination

neutralization

Which of the following destroys virus-infected cells?

TH

Treg

dendritic cells

B cells

CTL

CTL (cytotoxic lytic cells)

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cellular immunity?

Cells mature in the thymus gland

B cells make antibodies

T cells interact with epitopes in MHC molecules

The cells originate in bone marrow

Response to abnormal cells

B cells make antibodies

What type of immunity results from recovery from mumps?

innate immunity

naturally acquired active immunity

naturally acquired passive immunity

artificially acquired active immunity

artificially acquired passive immunity

naturally acquired active immunity

Desensitization involves injection of

antigens

histamine

antihistamine

IgG antibodies

IgE antibodies.

antigens

All of the following are considered examples of type I hypersensitivity EXCEPT

severe reactions to insect venom

transplant rejections

pollen allergies

dust allergies

asthma

transplant rejections

Anaphylaxis is the term for reactions caused when certain antigens combine with

macrophages

histamine

IgG antibodies

IgE antibodies

complement

IgE antibodies

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an

Rh- mother and an A fetus

AB mother with an O fetus

Rh+ mother with an Rh- fetus

AB mother with a B fetus

Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus

Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus

Which blood transfusions in the table are incompatible?

1, 2, and 3

2, 3, and 5

3 and 4

1 and 2

2 and 5

2, 3, and 5

Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE?

The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen

Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils

The symptoms are due to histamine

They involve IgE antibodies

They involve helper T cells

They involve helper T cells

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are

the proteins of the complement system

antigen-antibody complexes

antibodies

antigens

found in basophils and mast cells

found in basophils and mast cells

Which of the following statements is true?

a. Interferon is an antiviral protein

b. Interferon causes phagocytosis

c. Interferon causes bacteriocidal activity by macrophages

d. Interferon acts against specific viruses and bacteria

e. All of the above are true.

a. Interferon is an antiviral protein

Which of the following is not a function of inflammation?

a. To destroy an injurious agent

b. To remove an injurious agent

c. To wall off an injurious agent

d. To repair tissue damage

e. To produce antibodies.

e. To produce antibodies.

One result of fever is

a. Decreased availability of iron

b. Increased availability of iron

c. Slower tissue repair

d. Increased nickel concentration

e. None of the above.

a. Decreased availability of iron

The first line of defense does not include

a. Skin

b. Tears

c. Interferon

d. Mucous membranes

e. It includes all of the above.

c. Interferon

Cells that are involved in the humoral allergic response are

a. Basophils and erythrocytes

b. Neutrophils and basophils

c. Neutrophils and erythrocytes

d. Basophils and mast cells

e. Mast cells and neutrophils.

d. Basophils and mast cells

The major phagocytic cells in the body are

a. Macrophages and neutrophils

b. Neutrophils and erythrocytes

c. Erythrocytes and basophils

d. Macrophages and basophils

e. Macrophages, neutrophils, erythrocytes and basophils.

a. Macrophages and neutrophils

What type of immunity results from vaccination?

a. Innate immunity

b. Natural active immunity

c. Natural passive immunity

d. Artificial active immunity

e. Artificial passive immunity.

d. Artificial active immunity

The structure in the phagocytic cell that contains inactive digestive enzymes is the

a. Phagosome

b. Lysosome

c. Lysozyme

d. Phagolysosome

e. Residual body.

b. Lysosome

A human's resistance to canine distemper is an example of

a. Innate immunity

b. Natural active immunity

c. Natural passive immunity

d. Artificial active immunity

e. Artificial passive immunity.

a. Innate immunity

The killing mechanism of the phagocytic cell includes reaction of

a. Hydrogen peroxide, lysozyme, and chloride ion

b. Superoxide, chloride ion and myeloperoxidase

c. Lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, and chloride ion

d. Chloride ion, myeloperoxidase and hydrogen peroxide

e. Hydrogen peroxide, chloride ion, lysozyme and myeloperoxidase.

d. Chloride ion, myeloperoxidase and hydrogen peroxide

Chronic granulomatous disease

a. Is a mild, non-fatal disease

b. Is due to a defect in phagocytic killing

c. Is where granulocyte number is reduced in the body

d. Can be cured with artificial passive immunity

e. None of the above.

b. Is due to a defect in phagocytic killing

In the fever process due to a Gram negative bacterium

a. Interleukin I causes endotoxin to travel to the hypothalamus

b. The phagocytic cell releases prostaglandins

c. The hypothalamus releases prostaglandins which go to the phagocytic cell

d .Endotoxin release by the bacterium causes interleukin I production

e. None of the above.

d .Endotoxin release by the bacterium causes interleukin I production

In the humoral immune response

a. Penicillin can act as an antigen

b. Penicillin can act as a hapten

c. Catechol can act as an antigen

d. Catechol can act as a hapten

e. Penicillin and catechol can both act as antigens.

b. Penicillin can act as a hapten

Antibodies

a. And antibiotics are the same things

b. Can be antigens

c. Are sometimes made of proteins and sometimes made of polysaccharide

d. Are part of the cellular immune system

e. None of the above.

b. Can be antigens

The immunoglobulin that fixes complement, but does NOT pass the placenta is

a. IgG

b. IgM

c. IgA

d. IgD

e. IgE.

b. IgM

Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)

a. Always acts as a hapten

b. Is not an antigen because it is not foreign since H, C and N are normal constituents of the body

c. Can be an antigen in high concentration

d. Can cause immunity in small doses

e. Is simply too small to be an antigen.

e. Is simply too small to be an antigen.

The microorganism that can survive inside of a phagocytic cell is

a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

b. Clostridium botulinum

c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d. Chlamydia trachomatis

e. All of the above.

c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Which of the following is not a characteristic of B cells?

a. They originate in the bone marrow of humans

b. They have antibodies on their surfaces

c. They are responsible for a memory response

d. They are precursors to plasma cells

e. They recognize antigens presented by T cells.

e. They recognize antigens presented by T cells.

What type of immunity is not due to antibodies?

a. Innate immunity

b. Natural active immunity

c. Natural passive immunity

d. Artificial active immunity

e. Artificial passive immunity.

a. Innate immunity

Which of the following is not normally used in a vaccine?

a. Toxoid

b. Parts of bacterial cells

c. Live, attenuated bacteria

d. Inactivated viruses

e. Antibodies

e. Antibodies

Natural passive immunity is facilitated by

a. IgG and IgM

b. IgM and IgA

c. IgA and IgG

d. IgD and IgM

e. IgE and IgD.

c. IgA and IgG

The mechanism that humans use to raise body temperature is

a. Ingestion of interleukin-1

b. Ingestion of prostaglandin

c. Ingestion of interleukin-1 and prostaglandin

d. Chills

e. Sweating.

d. Chills

Desensitization with an allergy shot works by

a. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgE

b. Altering the antigen before it is injected

c. Blocking complement activation

d. Inducing synthesis of blocking IgG.

e. Blocking the histamine receptor sites.

d .Inducing synthesis of blocking IgG.

Which statement is correct?

a. Haptens are antigens

b. Haptens can induce antibody production in a person with the "proper" genetics

c. Haptens can never induce antibody production

d. Haptens are too large to be antigens

e. Haptens induce cell-mediated immunity only.

c. Haptens can never induce antibody production

Requirements for inducing antibody production include

a. Antigenic fragments, B cells, T helper cells and cytokines

b. Basophils, T helper cells and antigenic fragments

c. Mast cells, haptens, B cells and cytokines

d. Mast cells, basophils and cytokines

e. None of the above.

a. Antigenic fragments, B cells, T helper cells and cytokines

The anamnestic response is facilitated by

a. T helper cells

b. Memory B cells

c. Memory T cells

d. Cytokines

e. Macrophages.

e. Macrophages.

Transfusion of a normal A+ blood type person with type A- blood should result in

a. Immediate attack of the A- blood by antibodies

b. Eventual production of antibodies against the A- blood

c. Activation of complement which will lyse the A- blood

d. Inflammation

e. None of the above.

e. None of the above.

Antisera

a. Were not used much in the 20th century, but are commonly used today

b. Are used mainly for bacterial infections

c. Are derived mainly from chicken eggs and pigs

d. Are most frequently used for prevention of disease following exposure

e. All of the above apply to antisera.

d. Are most frequently used for prevention of disease following exposure

Which of the following is true in humans?

a. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the adult red bone marrow and T cells in the thymus

b. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the fetal liver and T cells in the thymus

c. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the adult red bone marrow and T cells in the fetal liver

d. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the adult red bone marrow and T cells in the hypothalamus

e. None of the above.

a. Stem cells are differentiated into B cells in the adult red bone marrow and T cells in the thymus

Which statement is correct?

a. Memory T cells and memory B cells are produced in humoral immunity

b. Memory T cells and memory B cells are produced in cellular immunity

c. Only memory T cells are produced in humoral immunity

d. Only memory T cells are produced in cellular immunity

e. Only memory B cells are produced in cellular immunity.

d. Only memory T cells are produced in cellular immunity

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn

a. Afflicts all fetuses from a Rh- mother

b. Can be a problem if the father is Rh+

c. Is never fatal

d. Has to do with A and B blood type antigens in the fetus

e. None of the above.

b. Can be a problem if the father is Rh+

An example of immune-complex hypersensitivity is

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

b. Multiple sclerosis

c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn

d. Chronic granulomatous disease

e. All of the above.

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

Cyclosporine

a. Is an antibiotic, by definition

b. Is a chemically-synthesized chemotherapeutic agent

c.Is normally administered to a Rh- woman after she has given birth

d. Is an immunosuppressant

e. None of the above.

d. Is an immunosuppressant

Cancer cells are typically killed by a(an)

a. Antibody plus complement

b. Antibody plus a helper virus

c. Antibody plus a T helper cell

d. Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte

e. Antibody plus a Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte plus a helper virus.

d. Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte

HIV originated and has the largest presence in

a. North America

b. Latin America

c. Sub-Saharan Africa

d. Southeast Asia

e. Eastern Europe

c. Sub-Saharan Africa

The protective mechanism of antibodies includes all of the following except

a. Agglutination

b. Opsonization

c. Tissue repair

d. Neutralization

e. The protective mechanism includes all of the above.

c. Tissue repair

A term for the part of the antigen that binds to the antibody is

a. Epitope

b. Carrier molecule

c. Adjuvant

d. Immunoglobulin

e. Cytokine.

a. Epitope

The common factor between humoral immunity and cellular immunity that is the primary target of HIV is the

a. Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte

b. T suppressor cell

c. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil

d. T helper cell

e. Cytokine.

d. T helper cell

A person who has a genetic predisposition for an allergy to penicillin

a. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following EVERY exposure to penicillin

b. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following JUST the first exposure to penicillin

c. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following EVERY subsequent exposure to penicillin, but not following the first exposure

d. Will never have an anaphylactic response after any exposure to penicillin

e. None of the above.

c. Will have an anaphylactic response immediately following EVERY subsequent exposure to penicillin, but not following the first exposure

Which statement is correct?

a.HIV can be transmitted by blood and sexual contact

b. HIV can be transmitted by sexual contact and mosquito bites

c. HIV can be transmitted by blood and kissing

d. HIV can be transmitted by blood, sexual contact, kissing and mosquito bites

e. None of the above.

a.HIV can be transmitted by blood and sexual contact

Which of the following is NOT a part of the first line of defense in non-specific host resistance?

a. Inflammation

b. Tears

c. Skin

d. Mucous membranes

e. All of the above are part of the first line of defense.

a. Inflammation

By paralyzing the cilia in the respiratory tract, cigarette smoke interferes with which of the following?

a. First line of defense

b. Second line of defense

c. Third line of defense

d. Immunity

e. Interferon

a. First line of defense

Which statement concerning fever is true?

a. Fever is harmful to the host and should always be treated with medication

b. Fever is beneficial to the host up to a point

c. Fever is beneficial because it results in the total destruction of all bacteria, viruses and toxins

d. Fever normally follows sweating

e. None of the above are true.

b. Fever is beneficial to the host up to a point

In the fever process, which chemical induces the hypothalamus to produce prostaglandins?

a. Interleukin I

b. Interferon

c. Complement

d. Interleukin II

e. Histamine

a. Interleukin I

Taking 10 showers a day may not be such a good idea because

a. Being "too" clean will embarrass your friends

b. Washing the oils off your skin is washing away some of your first line of defense

c. You may use up all of the hot water

d. You will wash away your B and T cells

e. None of the above.

b. Washing the oils off your skin is washing away some of your first line of defense

In the process of inflammation following a cut by a knife

a. Blood leaves the area around the cut so a clot can form

b. Phagocytic cells enter the blood vessels and are carried away

c. Tissue repair must occur before phagocytosis

d. Neutrophils leave the blood vessels and go after the bacteria

e. None of the above.

d. Neutrophils leave the blood vessels and go after the bacteria

Antigens

a. Are sometimes foreign to the host and reasonably large

b. Are always foreign to the host and reasonably large

c. Are the same as epitopes

d. By definition contain only one hapten

e. Are always antibodies.

b. Are always foreign to the host and reasonably large

A hapten

a. By itself causes the production of antibodies and binds to those antibodies

b. Cannot cause antibody production by itself

c. By itself causes the production of antibodies, but requires a carrier to bind to the antibodies

d. Is an antigen

e. None of the above.

b. Cannot cause antibody production by itself

A typical antibody

a. Can bind two epitopes

b. Is a protein.

c. Can be an antigen

d. All of the above

e. None of the above.

d. All of the above

Which is true about penicillin?

a. It can cause an allergic response the very first time it is introduced into a body

b. It can bind to a normal protein in some individuals, and the combination can induce antibody synthesis

c. It is not antigenic because it is not considered foreign by the host

d. All of the above are true

e. None of the above are true.

b. It can bind to a normal protein in some individuals, and the combination can induce antibody synthesis

The immunoglobulin that is most commonly found on the surface of B cells is

a. IgG

b. IgM

c. IgA

d. IgD

e. IgE.

d. IgD

The most important phagocytic cells in the body are

a. All of the leukocytes are equally important phagocytic cells

b. Neutrophils and macrophages

c. Neutrophils and lymphocytes

d. Macrophages and lymphocytes

e. Basophils and lymphocytes.

b. Neutrophils and macrophages

The structure in the phagocytic cell that stores the digestive enzymes is the

a. Phagosome

b. Endoplasmic reticulum

c. Residual body

d. Nucleus

e. Lysosome.

e. Lysosome.

In the human, stem cells differentiate into B cells in the

a. Red bone marrow of the adult

b. Bursa of fabricius

c. Thymus

d. Hypothalamus

e. Spleen.

a. Red bone marrow of the adult

In the activation of B cells to differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies, the antigen fragment is displayed on the B cell surface along with

a. IgG.

b. Helper T cell.

c. Major histocompatibility complex class II

d. Plasma cell.

e. Cytokines.

c. Major histocompatibility complex class II

What releases cytokines that activate the B cell to differentiate into plasma cells?

a. Extracellular antigens

b. Major histocompatibility complex class II

c. Gram negative bacterial cell

d. Helper T cell

e. Macrophage

d. Helper T cell

In the anamnestic response

a. More IgG is produced than in the primary response

b. Less IgG is produced than in the primary response

c. Only IgM is produced

d. The same amount of IgG is produced as in the primary response

e. None of the above.

a. More IgG is produced than in the primary response

Opsonization

a. Is where multiple antigens are tied together by antibodies

b. Enhances phagocytosis

c. Is simply neutralization

d. Requires complement

e. None of the above.

b. Enhances phagocytosis

Treatment following a venomous spider bite normally results in

a. Natural active immunity

b. Natural passive immunity

c. Artificial active immunity

d. Artificial passive immunity

e. Innate immunity.

d. Artificial passive immunity

Activation of complement requires the antigen to bind to

a. IgG or IgM

b. IgM or IgA

c. IgA or IgD

d. IgD or IgE

e. IgE or IgG.

a. IgG or IgM