Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Select one: a. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise b. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness c. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities d. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going

Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement?

Select one:

a.Standing pull assessment

b.Davies test

c.Standing overhead press

d.Standing push assessment

Standing push assessment

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury?

Select one:

a.Joint receptors

b.Interneurons

c.Golgi tendon organs

d.Muscle spindles

Golgi tendon organs

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?

Select one:

a.Erector spinae

b.Gluteus maximus

c.Gluteus medius

d.Hip flexor

Gluteus medius

What parameter of Muscular Development Training would be most associated with this style of training?

Select one:

a.Growth and volume

b.Strength and stabilization

c.Growth and stabilization

d.Strength and volume

Growth and volume

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?

Select one:

a.Isometric

b.Eccentric

c.Isokinetic

d.Concentric

Isometric

What concept allows a person to jump higher during plyometric exercises?

Select one:

a.Concentric contractions

b.Eccentric loading

c.Ankle stability

d.Increased amortization

Eccentric loading

Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing?

Select one:

a.Abdominals

b.Internal intercostals

c.Scalenes

d.Diaphragm

Diaphragm

Which three senses are involved in the balance system?

Select one:

a.Visual, vestibular, and hearing systems

b.Vestibular, somatosensory, and auditory systems

c.Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

d.Visual, vestibular, and auditory systems

Visual, vestibular, and somatosensory systems

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?

Select one:

a.Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise

b.Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness

c.Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going

d.Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

Select one:

a.Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh

b.Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

c.Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac

d.Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Which term best describes motion at the joint surface?

Select one:

a.Osteokinematics

b.Arthrokinematics

c.Kinesiology

d.Biomechanics

Arthrokinematics

A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?

Select one:

a.Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

b.Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius

c.Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius

d.Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors

Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?

Select one:

a.A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

b.A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)

c.A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line

d.A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?

Select one:

a.The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

b.The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

c.The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

d.The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?

Select one:

a.Frontal plane

b.Thoracic spine

c.Lumbar spine

d.Sagittal plane

Thoracic spine

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?

Select one:

a.Vitamin C

b.Fat-soluble vitamins

c.B vitamins

d.Water-soluble vitamins

B vitamins

Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment?

Select one:

a.Corrective exercise specialist or certified exercise physiologist

b.Registered dietitian or nutritionist

c.Certified Personal Trainer or certified fitness professional

d.Psychologist or psychiatrist

Psychologist or psychiatrist

What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?

Select one:

a.Irregular

b.Long

c.Short

d.Flat

Long

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

Select one:

a.Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine

b.Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum

c.Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

d.Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine

Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?

Select one:

a.Heart function

b.Liver function

c.Thyroid function

d.Kidney function

Thyroid function

Which of the following is magnesium classified as?

Select one:

a.Vitamin

b.Macromineral

c.Trace mineral

d.Macronutrient

Macromineral

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

Select one:

a.Proprioceptive plyometrics

b.Squat jump

c.Depth jumps

d.Ice skaters

Ice skaters

How many B vitamins are there?

Select one:

a.8

b.21

c.3

d.12

8

What is adaptive thermogenesis?

Select one:

a.Increased heat production due to changes in energy expenditure

b.Adaptations to exercise due to changes in energy intake

c.Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

d.Changes in energy intake due to changes in energy expenditure

Metabolic adaptations and changes in energy expenditure due to changes in energy intake

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?

Select one:

a.Force velocity

b.External feedback

c.Stretch-shortening cycle

d.Proprioception

Proprioception

Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?

Select one:

a.Pivot

b.Condyloid

c.Ball-and-socket

d.Nonsynovial

Nonsynovial

How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?

Select one:

a.Anterior pelvic tilt

b.Excessive lordotic position

c.Kyphotic positioning

d.In a neutral position

In a neutral position

What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?

Select one:

a.A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

b.A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.

c.A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention.

d.A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines.

A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

According to the OPT model, an integrated program that is planned correctly will not include which of the following factors for training?

Select one:

a.Rehabilitation

b.Resistance training

c.Plyometrics

d.Core

Rehabilitation

Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?

Select one:

a.Type IIb

b.Type IIc

c.Type I

d.Type IIa

Type I

The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites?

Select one:

a.Triceps, abdomen, and thigh

b.Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

c.Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen

d.Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac

Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?

Select one:

a.Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities

b.Move the trunk

c.Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement

d.Stabilize vertebral segments

Stabilize vertebral segments

What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?

Select one:

a.Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening

b.Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse

c.Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

d.Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion

Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change

What phase of the OPT model aims to enhance stabilization endurance and simultaneously increase prime-mover strength?

Select one:

a.Maximal Strength

b.Strength Endurance

c.Stabilization Endurance

d.Power

Strength Endurance

SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?

Select one:

a.Arthritis

b.Lung cancer

c.Osteopenia

d.There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition.

Osteopenia

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?

Select one:

a.2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

b.3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM

c.4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM

d.5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?

Select one:

a.Cable rotation

b.Side plank

c.Floor crunch

d.Medicine ball soccer throw

Side plank

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?

Select one:

a.The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.

b.The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.

c.The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

d.The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs?

Select one:

a.The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain.

b.The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

c.The unused energy is stored for the next jump.

d.The attempt at jumping will fail.

The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?

Select one:

a.Power training

b.SAQ training

c.Plyometric training

d.Stabilization training

Plyometric training

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?

Select one:

a.Back extension

b.Dead bug

c.Plank

d.Medicine ball overhead throw

Back extension

Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?

Select one:

a.Medicine ball throw

b.Bracing

c.Back squat

d.Drawing-in maneuver

Drawing-in maneuver

What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?

Select one:

a.Nucleus

b.Neuron

c.Axon

d.Spindles

Neuron

When properly activated, which muscle of the core creates tension in the thoracolumbar fascia?

Select one:

a.Rectus abdominis

b.Diaphragm

c.Sternocleidomastoid

d.Transverse abdominis

Transverse abdominis

What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?

Select one:

a.Phase 2

b.Phase 3

c.Phase 5

d.Phase 1

Phase 3

What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?

Select one:

a.Acceleration force

b.Deceleration force

c.Stabilization force

d.Ground reaction force

Ground reaction force

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up?

Select one:

a.Triceps brachii

b.Brachialis

c.Biceps brachii

d.Brachioradialis

Brachioradialis

What are the recommended training variables for self-myofascial rolling?

Select one:

a.1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 2 minutes

b.5 to 10 sets, hold each tender area for 5 seconds

c.1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

d.2 to 5 sets, hold each tender area for 5 minutes

1 to 3 sets, hold each tender area for 30 seconds

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?

Select one:

a.Left ventricle

b.Left atrium

c.Right ventricle

d.Right atrium

Right atrium

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect?

Select one:

a.Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

b.Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.

c.Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

d.It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?

Select one:

a.A sarcomere

b.Actin

c.Endomysium

d.Myosin

A sarcomere

Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a food product?

Select one:

a.The nutrition facts panel

b.The ingredients list

c.The nutrition label

d.The percent daily values

The ingredients list

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?

Select one:

a.Strength Endurance Training

b.Stabilization Endurance Training

c.Power Training

d.Muscular Development Training

Power Training

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise?

Select one:

a.Stabilization of the LPHC

b.Slow and controlled movements

c.Use of heavy weights

d.A faster tempo, similar to daily life

A faster tempo, similar to daily life

What type of client would ideally participate in stage 4 training?

Select one:

a.Fitness enthusiasts with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and power

b.Advanced clients with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and speed

c.Fitness enthusiasts with moderate levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in aerobic capacity and speed

d.Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

Advanced clients with high levels of cardiorespiratory fitness, seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power

For which population is the 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test considered most valid?

Select one:

a.College-aged athletes

b.Individuals recovering from an injury

c.Deconditioned individuals

d.Older adults

College-aged athletes

When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?

Select one:

a.Pyruvate

b.Amino acids

c.Fatty acids

d.Glycogen

Pyruvate

What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?

Select one:

a.The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

b.Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.

c.The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

d.The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.

The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.

During the cable rotation exercise, which position of the hip will help to decrease stress to the low-back?

Select one:

a.Hip adduction

b.Hip internal rotation

c.Hip extension

d.Hip flexion

Hip extension

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?

Select one:

a.1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

b.4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises

c.3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

d.15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions

1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term?

Select one:

a.Socioeconomic status

b.Net worth

c.Social influence

d.Income status

Socioeconomic status

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures?

Select one:

a.Trachea

b.Alveolar sacs

c.Bronchioles

d.Pulmonary arteries

Alveolar sacs

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine?

Select one:

a.Iliopsoas

b.Latissimus dorsi

c.Erector spinae

d.Multifidus

Multifidus

A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in?

Select one:

a.Preparation

b.Precontemplation

c.Maintenance

d.Action

Preparation

Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?

Select one:

a.Osteoporosis

b.Osteoarthritis

c.Osteopenia

d.Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteoarthritis

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold?

Select one:

a.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

b.World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

c.Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

d.European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle?

Select one:

a.Transitioning of forces

b.Stretching of the agonist muscle

c.Stretching of the antagonist muscle

d.Shortening of the agonist muscle

Stretching of the agonist muscle

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics?

Select one:

a.Hip extension

b.Knee flexion

c.Ankle dorsiflexion

d.Hip flexion

Hip extension

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?

Select one:

a.2

b.9

c.6

d.4

4

Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model?

Select one:

a.Stabilization

b.Strength Endurance

c.Power

d.Strength

Strength Endurance

For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?

Select one:

a.Excessive anterior pelvic tilt

b.Knee dominance

c.Knee valgus

d.Knee varus

Knee varus

Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?

Select one:

a.Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers

b.A decrease in metabolic rate

c.A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest

d.A reduction in blood pressure at rest

A decrease in metabolic rate

Which balance task would require significant use of the vestibular system?

Select one:

a.Standing on two limbs catching a ball

b.Standing on two limbs with eyes open

c.Naming the months of the year while standing on one limb

d.Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

Squatting on one limb with eyes closed

What is the superior boundary of the core?

Select one:

a.Pelvic floor and hip musculature

b.Abdominal muscles

c.Lumbar spine and gluteal muscles

d.Diaphragm

Diaphragm

Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?

Select one:

a.Instrumental support

b.Emotional support

c.Companionship support

d.Informational support

Instrumental support

Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important?

Select one:

a.NEAT can be protective against obesity.

b.NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate.

c.NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness.

d.NEAT can increase muscle mass.

NEAT can be protective against obesity.

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?

Select one:

a.Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week

b.Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week

c.Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

d.Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week

Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?

Select one:

a.It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

b.It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work

c.It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work.

d.It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.

It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?

Select one:

a.Duration of each stage

b.Talk test

c.Environmental temperature

d.Exercise modality

Environmental temperature

What are the three categories within the lipid family?

Select one:

a.Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

b.Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol

c.Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats

d.Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s

Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?

Select one:

a.Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

b.Feet, ankles, knees, torso, and neck

c.Feet, ankles, knees, abdomen, and chest

d.Feet and ankles, LPHC, shoulders, head, and neck

Feet and ankles, knees, LPHC, shoulders, and head and neck

Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?

Select one:

a.An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg

b.Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg

c.Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

d.Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion

Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term?

Select one:

a.Core strength

b.Core power

c.Core endurance

d.Core stability

Core stability

A client looking to add muscle and bulk over the next few months asks for advice on how to consume extra calories. Which of the following would be the most appropriate advice, while remaining within scope of practice?

Select one:

a.Recommend she eat high-calorie "cheat meals" more often.

b.Suggest she increase consumption of high-calorie foods such as ice cream, pizza, and cake.

c.Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

d.Recommend she increase only her protein intake at every meal.

Suggest she increase meal frequency and portion sizes at meals.

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase?

Select one:

a.Overall base strength

b.Core stability

c.Balance

d.Motor unit recruitment

Motor unit recruitment

Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?

Select one:

a.Scapula and humerus

b.Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae

c.Cranium and facial bones

d.Sternum and clavicle

Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?

Select one:

a.Axial

b.Sagittal

c.Frontal

d.Transverse

Transverse

What is Bernadette's waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) if she is measured with a waist circumference of 28 inches and a hip circumference of 33 inches?

Select one:

a.1.18

b.0.85

c.0.97

d.1.04

0.85

What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?

Select one:

a.Collagen

b.Elastin

c.Tendon

d.Ligament

Ligament

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?

Select one:

a.Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms.

b.Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms.

c.High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity.

d.Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?

Select one:

a.Pectoralis major

b.Latissimus dorsi

c.Multifidus

d.Iliopsoas

Multifidus

What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction?

Select one:

a.Activation of the intercalated discs

b.Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

c.Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system

d.Activation of sarcomeres

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system

Which option is a common power-focused resistance training exercise?

Select one:

a.Barbell squat

b.Bench press

c.Single-leg cable row

d.Medicine ball soccer throw

Medicine ball soccer throw

What BMI score is considered within normal limits?

Select one:

a.18.5 to 24.9

b.35 to 39.9

c.25 to 29.9

d.30 to 34.9

18.5 to 24.9

What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming?

Select one:

a.Mesocycle

b.Microcycle

c.Megacycle

d.Macrocycle

Macrocycle

Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?

Select one:

a.Iliopsoas

b.Rotatores

c.Rectus abdominis

d.Latissimus dorsi

Rotatores

What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?

Select one:

a.Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance

b.Precontemplation, action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance

c.Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

d.Contemplation, precontemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?

Select one:

a.45 to 65% of total calories

b.30 to 50% of total calories

c.10 to 35% of total calories

d.20 to 35% of total calories

45 to 65% of total calories

Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?

Select one:

a.Supine hamstrings stretch

b.Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings

c.Standing hamstring stretch

d.Assisted supine hamstring stretch

Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings

Which is not part of triple extension involved in backside sprint mechanics?

Select one:

a.Ankle plantar flexion

b.Hip extension

c.Hip abduction

d.Knee extension

Hip abduction