Neuroscience practice questions stolen

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171 Terms

1
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All of the following are examples of a neurotransmitter except:

Select one:

a. chemical that has effects on neurons or other cells.

b. a chemical that activates genes.

c. a chemical synthesized in a neuron.

d. chemical released from a neuron.

b. a chemical that activates genes

2
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All of the following will reduce neurotransmitter release except:

Select one:

a. increasing activity of catabolic enzymes inside the axon terminal.

b. blocking membrane transporters.

c. blocking calcium channels

d. disrupting neurotransmitter synthesis.

b. blocking membrane transporters

3
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All of the following increase neurotransmitter concentrations in the synaptic cleft except:

Select one:

a. inhibiting catabolic enzymes

b. blocking receptors in the postsynaptic terminal

c. increasing calcium influx

d. blocking membrane transporters.

b. blocking receptors on the postsynaptic terminal

4
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Where does the synthesis of large neurotransmitter molecules typically occur?

Select one:

a. axon terminal

b. postsynaptic terminal

c. vesicle

d. soma

d. soma

5
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The activation of a neurotransmitter receptor is another way of stating that:

Select one:

a. a neurotransmitter is bound to a receptor.

b. a conformational change occurred to the receptor.

c. exocytosis occurred.

d. an excitatory postsynaptic potential occurred.

b. a conformational change occurred to the receptor

6
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A compound that blocked vesicular transporters would likely:

Select one:

a. prevent reuptake.

b. increase the activity of postsynaptic receptors.

c. cause a decrease in calcium influx.

d. prevent the storage of neurotransmitters in vesicles.

d. prevent the storage of neurotransmitters in vesicles

7
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The sequence of events in chemical neurotransmission normally occurs in this order:

Select one:

a. Release, synthesis, storage, bind to receptors.

b. Storage, release, bind to receptors, synthesis.

c. Bind to receptors, release, storage, synthesis.

d. Synthesis, storage, release, bind to receptors.

d. synthesis, storage, release, bind to receptors

8
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All of the following are examples of why vesicular storage of neurotransmitters is important except:

Select one:

a. prevents premature release of neurotransmitters.

b. protects neurotransmitter from destruction by enzymes.

c. provides mechanism for immediate release of neurotransmitters.

d. provides a protected area for neurotransmitter synthesis to occur.

d. provides a protected area for neurotransmitter synthesis to occur

9
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Neurotransmitters enter vesicles through channels called:

Select one:

a. vesicular transporters

b. calcium channels

c. membrane transporters

d. catabolic enzymes

a. vesicular transporters

10
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_____________ refers to the return of neurotransmitters to the axon terminal through membrane transporters.

Select one:

a. Turnover

b. Exocytosis

c. Catabolism

d. Reuptake

d. reuptake

11
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Serotonin is a peptide transmitter

Select one:

True

False

false

12
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Substance P and vasopressin are both examples of peptide hormones

Select one:

True

False

true

13
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Both GABA and dopamine are amino acid neurotransmitters.

Select one:

True

False

false

14
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Dynorphin A and beta-endorphin are both examples of enkephalins.

Select one:

True

False

false

15
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Acetylcholine is a quaternary amine neurotransmitter.

Select one:

True

False

true

16
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A competitive antagonist

a. decreases EC50

b. increases EC50

c. shifts the dose-response relationship to the left

d. decreases Emax

e. has no effect on EC50

b. increases EC50

17
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If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it's called

a. a partial agonist

b. an antagonist

c. an agonist-antagonist

d. a full agonist

e. a ligand

d. a full agonist

18
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If a drug has an EC50 of 250nM and a Kd of 600nM

a. there are spare receptors to the drug

b. it has low bioavailability

c. it is a competitive antagonist

d. it is largely metabolised before it reaches its site of action

e. it is a partial agonist

a. there are spare receptors to the drug

19
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Regarding orthosteric antagonism and the effects of a non-competitive antagonist

a. EC50 is unaltered but Emax decreases

b. EC50 is unaltered and Emax is unaltered

c. EC50 decreases and Emax is unaltered

d. EC50 is unaltered but Emax increases

e. EC50 increases but Emax is unaltered

a. EC50 is unaltered but Emax decreases

20
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If the pD2 of a drug is 6, its EC50 is

a. 1 nM

b. 10 nM

c. 10 uM

d. 1 uM

e. 6 uM

d. 1um

21
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An inverse agonist has an intrinsic activity of

a. 1

b. More than 1 but less than 0

c. 2

d. less than 0

e. 0

d. less than 0

22
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According to Clarks equation, when the concentration of drug equals Kd, then the drug occupies what percentage of the receptor population?

a. 0%

b. 50%

c. 75%

d. 25%

e. 100%

b. 50%

23
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The KD of a particular drug generally is reflective of

a. its ability to antagonise an agonist

b. the maximal response it produces

c. the time taken to activate a receptor

d. its ability to activate a receptor

e. its strength of binding to a receptor

e. its strength of binding to a receptor

24
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The concept of 'intrinsic efficacy' was first proposed by

a. Stephenson

b. Ariens

c. Furghott

d. Langley

e. Clark

a. stephenson

25
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The location of a curve on the x axis of a concentration response relationship graph donates

a. efficacy

b. intrinsic activity

c. drug threshold

d. efficiency of coupling

e. potency

e. potency

26
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Which of the following routes of drug administration will give a bioavailability factor of 1?

a. Transdermal

b. Intravenous

c. Sublingual

d. Topical

e. Oral

b. intravenous

27
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If the pKa of pethidine is 8.6 and the pH of the ileum is 7.6, what ratio of pethidine will be in the non-ionised : ionised state?

Select one:

1 : 100

1 : 10

1 : 1

100 : 1

1,000 : 1

1:10

28
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If the pKa of aspirin is 3.5 and the pH of the stomach is 1.5, what ratio of aspirin will be in the non-ionised : ionised state?

Select one:

100 : 1

1 : 1

10 : 1

50 : 1

1,000 : 1

100:1

29
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The passage of drugs across the blood-brain barrier

Select one:

a. is rapid with aminoglycoside antibiotics

b. is most rapid for drugs with high lipid solubility

c. is facilitated by a high degree of drug ionization

d. does not occur in the chemoreceptor trigger zone

e. is reduced by inflammation of the meninges

b. is most rapid for drugs with high lipid solubility

30
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of administering drugs via the intra-venous route?

Select one:

a. They will have a bioavailability = 1

b. A large volume can be administered.

c. It is difficult to titrate the dose precisely.

d. A fast onset of action will be achieved.

e. Drugs in an oil vehicle should be avoided.

e. drugs in an oil vehicle should be avoided

31
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Which of the following membrane carrier proteins is involved in the renal secretion of urate?

Select one:

a. Organic Anion Transporters (OAT)

b. Solute carrier (SLC)

c. Organic Cation Transporters (OCT)

d. ATP-binding cassette transporters (ABC)

e. Simple Lipid Diffusion

a. organic anion transporters (OAT)

32
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In which of the following tissues are SLC's, OCT's and OAT's NOT abundantaly expressed in:

a. Gastrointestinal Tract

b. Placenta

c. Renal Tubule

d. Adipose tissue

e. Blood brain barrier

d. adipose tissue

33
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Which of the following plasma proteins is the main protein to which drugs can bind?

a. Albumin

b. Apolipoprotein

c. Complement Factor B

d. Plasminogen

e. Transferrin

a. albumin

34
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Which of the following is the best explanation of why, having received a general anaesthetic via the intravenous route, within 15 minutes the patient regains consciousness?

Select one:

a. The drug is rapidly broken down in the brain and the neurons become desensitised.

b. The drug is almost totally excreted by the liver in the bile.

c. The drug is almost totally excreted by the kidneys.

d. The drug is almost totally metabolised during the first pass through the liver.

e. The drug distributes to the brain first due to high lipid solubility and then re-distributes to less well perfused organs.

e. the drug distributes to the brain first due to high lipid solubility and then re-distributes to less well perfused organs

35
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When considering the therapeutic window of a drug, which of the following statements is correct?

Select one:

a. The therapeutic window of a drug should ideally be as small as possible.

b. Drugs that have a wide therapeutic window often require therapeutic drug monitoring.

c. The therapeutic window of a drug should ideally be as large as possible.

d. Therapeutic drug monitoring should be used for most drugs.

e. The therapeutic window of a drug is of no clinical importance to it's safety.

c. the therapeutic window of a drug should ideally be as large as possible

36
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Considering the oral route of administration, which of the following statements are correct?

a. The bioavailability of all generic formulations of a drug are identical.

b. An advantage of the oral route of administration is the avoidance of first pass metabolism.

c. The oral route has a bio-availability factor = 1

d. The pKa for an ionisable drug can influence bioavailability.

e. The bioavailability of a tablet formulation is often greater than the elixir formulation.

d. the pKa for an ionisable drug can influence bioavailability

37
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Which of the following are involved in a spinal reflex.

Note: there may be more than one correct answer and you need to identify all of them to get the question correct.

select one or more:

a. sensory neuron

b. sensory receptor

c. spinal interneuron

d. motor neuron

a, b, c and d

38
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Through which mAChR receptor subtype does ACh cause a reduction in heart rate?

Select one:

a. M3

b. M1

c. M4

d. M2

d. M2

39
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Which of the following is an α-adrenergic response?

Select one:

a. dilating the smooth muscle of blood vessels in the skin and intestinal area

b. opening (dilation) of the airways or bronchioles in the lung

c. inhibition (relaxation) of the digestive tract muscular motility, such as peristalsis

d. increasing the force and rate of the heart beat

c. inhibition (relaxation) of the digestive tract muscular motility, such as peristalsis

40
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What is the name of the space between the dura and inner surface of the bony vertebra?

Select one or more:

a. subarachnoid space

b. the subdural space

c. epidural space

d. subpial space

c. epidural space

41
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Ribosomes are________

Select one:

a.

critical for protein biosynthesis

b.

transmembrane proteins used in cell communication

c.the site of cellular respiration

d.located only in the nucleus

a. critical for biosynthesis

42
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Which of the following is true of the resting membrane potential (RMP)

Select one or more:

a. only neurons have a RMP

b. it is the difference in electrical charge across the cell membrane

c. it is around +30 mV in neurons

d. it depends strongly on potassium

e. it is generated by the sodium-potassium pump

b. it is the difference in electrical charge across the cell membrane

d. it depends strongly on potassium

43
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With respect to neurons, the term "nerve fiber" refers to

Select one:

a. dendrite

b. axon

c. Nissl body

d. rough endoplasmic reticulum

e. mitochondria

b. axon

44
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A nerve is a network of cell bodies

Select one:

True

False

false

45
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Neurophysiology experiments using monkeys

Select one:

a. are illegal in the UK

b. measure from single cells in vivo

c. are widely used across the UK to study epilepsy

d. are able to model stroke in humans

b. measure from single cells in vivo

46
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All preganglionic neurons are cholinergic

Select one:

True

False

true

47
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The most commonly used animals in laboratory experiments are

Select one:

a. dogs

b. mice

c. monkeys

d. fish

b. mice

48
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This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body.

Select one:

a. Multipolar neuron

b. Bipolar neuron

c. Unipolar neuron

d. Purkinje cell

e. Renshaw cell

b. bipolar neuron

49
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With respect to drug-receptor binding

Select one:

a. A partial agonist has an intrinsic activity value of 1

b. Competitive antagonists decrease the Efficacy of agonists

c. Non-competitive antagonists generally bind to receptors with weak hydrogen bonds

d. A true antagonist has no intrinsic activity

e. All of the above

d. a true antagonist has no intrinsic activity

50
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Sympathetic chain ganglia output to the adrenal medulla

Select one:

True

False

false

51
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The law that governs animal experimentation in the UK is called

Select one:

a. The laboratory animals act

b. Captive animals act

c. The Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act

d. The RSPCA act

c. The Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act

52
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The neuronal membrane___

Select one:

a. is ~ 5nm thick

b. has a variable protein concentration throughout

c. has discrete regions that influence neuronal function

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

53
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The ability of a drug to produce stimulus once it has bound to its receptor, is referred to as:

Select one:

a. potency

b. efficacy

c. variability

d. affinity

e. intrinsic efficacy

b. efficacy

54
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All of the following will reduce neurotransmitter release except:

Select one:

a. increasing activity of catabolic enzymes inside the axon terminal.

b. blocking membrane transporters.

c. disrupting neurotransmitter synthesis.

d. blocking calcium channels

b. blocking membrane transporters

55
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Communication between neurons occurs by

Select one:

a.

synaptic transmission

b.

osmosis

c.

dendritic morphology

d.

axonal transport via microtubules

a. synaptic transmission

56
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The difference between microtubules that are located in axons and dendrites is that

Select one:

a. axons contain tau-bound microtubules and dendrites MAP2-bound molecules

b. axons contain MAP2-bound microtubules and dendrites tau-bound molecules

c. nothing, both contain MAP2-bound molecules

d. nothing, both contain tau-bound molecules

b. axons contain MAP2-bound microtubules and dendrites tau-bound molecules

57
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Nerves connect the central nervous system to sensory receptors

Select one:

True

False

true

58
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All ganglionic neurons are noradrenergic

Select one:

True

False

false

59
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Which of the following are true of the action potential

Select one or more:

a. at the peak of the AP, the membrane potential becomes +30 mV or so, known as the overshoot zero

b. once the threshold is reached, there is an all-or-nothing AP

c. opening of voltage-gated sodium channels results in depolarization and the rising phase of the action potential

d. the AP is only generated when the RMP depolarizes to a threshold

e. voltage-gated sodium channels are opened at threshold

a, b, c, d and e

60
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Which neurone releases a catecholamine as a neurotransmitter?

Select one:

a. preganglionic sympathetic fibre

b. preganglionic parasympathetic fibre

c. postganglionic parasympathetic fibre

d. postganglionic sympathetic fibre

d. postganglionic sympathetic fibre

61
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A competitive antagonist:

Select one:

a. decreases agonist EC50

b. increases agonist EC50

c. has no effect on agonist EC50

d. shifts the dose-response relationship to the right

e. both B AND D are correct

e. both B and D are correct

62
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The mitochondria are the site of ___________

Select one:

a. cellular respiration

b. ATP production

c. RNA production

d. Both A and B

d. both A and B

63
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Which of the following are intracellular second messengers

Select one or more:

a. IP3

b. DAG

c. adenylyl cyclase

d. cAMP

e. calcium

a, b, c, d and e

64
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the period after an action potential in which it is not possible to generate another action potential is known as

Select one or more:

a. depolarization

b. relative refractory period

c. repolarization

d. resting potential

e. absolute refractory period

e. absolute refractory period

65
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Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the parasympathetic division of the ANS?

Select one:

a. airway dilation

b. decreased pupil diameter

c. decreased heart rate

d. increased gastric motility

a. airway dilation

66
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Which of the following can be an effect of GPCR activation

Select one or more:

a. inhibition of calcium channels

b. stimulation of cAMP

c. activation of phospholipase C (PLC)

d. activation of potassium channels

e. inhibition of cAMP

a, b, c, d and e

67
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The soma has two types of neurite processes known as

Select one:

a. microtubules and microfilaments

b. rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c. axons and dendrites

d. organelles and the nucleus

c. axons and dendrites

68
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The difference between the cytoplasm of the axon terminal and the axon include:

Select one:

a. there is no cell membrane in the axon

b. there are synaptic vesicles in the axon, but not the axon terminal

c. there are synaptic vesicles in the axon terminal, but not in the axon

d. there is a nucleus in the axon terminal

c. there are synaptic vesicles in the axon terminal, but not in the axon

69
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Which of following organelles is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons?

Select one:

a. mitochondria

b. nucleus

c. rough endoplasmic reticulum

d. Golgi apparatus

e. nucleolus

c. rough endoplasmic reticulum

70
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The _______ is responsible for gene expression, transcription and processing of RNA

Select one:

a. neurite

b. mitochondria

c. ribosome

d. nucleus

d. nucleus

71
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Acetylcholine and norepinephrine are two well-known

Select one:

a. neurotransmitters

b. drugs of abuse

c. enzymes that rapidly inactivate

d. post-synaptic receptors

a. neurotransmitters

72
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CRISPR-cas9 gene editing uses short strands of RNA known as______

Select one:

a. tRNA

b. guide RNA

c. gRNA

d. specific RNA

e. mRNA

b. guide RNA

73
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Humans have approximately _____ neurons in the brain.

Select one:

a. 100 billion

b. 1 billion

c. 200 trillion

d. 10 billion

a. 100 billion

74
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The term Kd represents

Select one:

a. The number of receptors in a tissue

b. The affinity constant for binding of a drug to its receptors

c. The density of receptors in a tissue

d. The drug concentration that produces 50% of maximal clinical response in the absence of spare receptors

e. The rate at which a drug dissociates from its receptor

d. the drug concentration that produces 50% of maximal clinical response in the absence of spare receptors

75
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All of the following are examples of a neurotransmitter except:

Select one:

a. a chemical synthesized in a neuron.

b. a chemical that activates genes.

c. chemical that has effects on neurons or other cells.

d. chemical released from a neuron.

b. a chemical that activates genes

76
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A postganglionic neuron in the ANS

Select one:

a. has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.

b. releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.

c. is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.

d. has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.

b. releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell

77
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Affective disorders...

Select one:

a. include depression and biploar disorder

b. relate primarily to schizophrenia

c. include psychosis and autism

d. include anxiety and depression

e. relate primarily to anxiety

a. include depression and bipolar disorder

78
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If a drug is reported to have an EC50 of 100 nM and a Kd of 100 nM:

Select one:

a. it is a competitive antagonist

b. it is largely metabolised before it reaches its site of action

c. there are no spare receptors to the drug

d. it has low bioavailability

e. this cannot be true

c. there are no spare receptors to the drug

79
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Optogenetics uses proteins called ______ to allow alteration of neural circuits using ______.

Select one:

a. channel rhodopsin, light

b. neurotransmitters, light

c. receptors, light

d. channel rhodopsin, drugs

e. receptors, drugs

a. channel rhodopsin, light

80
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A ganglion is a collection of cell bodies

Select one:

True

False

true

81
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The tail suspension test in mice can be used to study the biology of _______

Select one:

a. depression

b. Alzheimer's Disease

c. autism

d. anxiety

e. schizophrenia

a. depression

82
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The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are

Select one:

a. muscarine and acetylcholine

b. somatostatin and nicotine

c. norepinephrine and acetylcholine

d. nicotine and adrenaline

c. norepinephrine and acetylcholine

83
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Which of the following are characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?

Select one:

a. inhibits digestive tract

b. dilates the bronchi

c. accelerates the heart rate

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

84
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If a drug is administered repeatedly at the same dose and dosage interval, the time required to reach steady-state plasma drug concentration is proportional to the

(A) Dose

(B) Route of administration

(C) Dosage interval

(D) Bioavailability

(E) Elimination half life

e. elimination half life

85
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The passage of drugs across the blood-brain barrier

(A) Is facilitated by a high degree of drug ionization

(B) Does not occur in the chemoreceptor trigger zone

(C) Is most rapid for drugs with high lipid solubility

(D) Is reduced by inflammation of the meninges

(E) Is rapid with aminoglycoside antibiotics

c. is most rapid for drugs with high lipid solubility

86
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Most drugs diffuse across cell membranes of the gut by the process of

(A) diffusing through lipid

(B) diffusing through aqueous pores

(C) pinocytosis

(D) carrier mediated transport

(E) ion trapping

b. diffusing through aqueous pores

87
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Concerning the effect of pH on the urinary excretion of drugs, it can be correctly stated that

(A) urinary alkalinisation accelerates excretion of weak acids

(B) urinary acidification accelerates excretion of weak acids and bases

(C) urinary alkalinisation accelerates excretion of weak acids and bases

(D) urinary acidification accelerates excretion of weak acids

(E) urinary alkalinisation has no effect upon excretion of weak bases

a. urinary alkalisation accelerates excretion of weak acids

88
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Which of the following is a disadvantage of administering drugs via the intra-venous route:

(A) Drugs in and oil vehicle should be avoided

(B) They will have a bioavailability = 1

(C) A large volume can be administered

(D) It is difficult to titrate the does precisely

(E) A fast onset of action will be achieved

a. drugs in an oil vehicle should be avoided

89
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Through which muscarinic acetylcholine receptor subtype does acetylcholine cause a reduction in heart rate?

(A) M1

(B) M2

(C) M3

(D) M4

(E) M5

b. M2

90
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Which of the following would result from stimulation of α1 adrenergic receptors?

(A) Dilation of bronchi

(B) Increased heart rate

(C) Vasoconstriction

(D) Inhibition of insulin release

(E) Constriction of pupils

c. vasoconstriction

91
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Which of the following would result from stimulation of β1 adrenergic receptors?

(A) Dilation of bronchi

(B) Increased heart rate

(C) Vasoconstriction

(D) Inhibition of insulin release

(E) Constriction of pupils

b. increased heart rate

92
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Which of the following would result from stimulation of β2 adrenergic receptors?

(A) Dilation of bronchi

(B) Increased heart rate

(C) Vasoconstriction

(D) Inhibition of insulin release

(E) Constriction of pupils

a. dilation of bronchi

93
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How does the sodium potassium pump help maintain the resting membrane potential?

(A) Pumps potassium in and sodium out

(B) Pumps sodium in and potassium out

(C) Exchanges a sodium and a potassium for a calcium

(D) Uses calcium to pump sodium and potassium against their concentration gradients

(A) None of the above

a. pumps potassium in and sodium out

94
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How long does an action potential last from the beginning of the rising phase to the end of the falling phase?

(A) 2 nanoseconds

(B) 2 milliseconds

(C) 2 seconds

(D) 2 microseconds

(E) 2 seconds

b. 2 milliseconds

95
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The movement of what ion is reflected in the rising phase of the action potential?

(A) Inward Na+

(B) Outward K+

(C) Outward Na+

(D) Inward K+

(E) None of the above

a. inward Na+

96
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How does myelin help increase conduction velocity?

(A) It provides electrical insulation

(B) It makes the membrane more excitable

(C) It contains voltage-gated sodium channels

(D) It increases axonal diameter

(E) It decreases axon length

a. it provides electrical insulation

97
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How is glutamate removed at synapses in the brain?

(A) breakdown by extracellular enzymes

(B) uptake by the presynaptic neuron

(C) uptake by the postsynaptic neuron

(D) uptake by astrocytes

(E) uptake by the blood-brain barrier

d. uptake by astrocytes

98
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The spinothalamic tract

(A) is an ascending tract in the spinal cord

(B) goes from the brain to the spinal cord

(C) transmits motor information

(D) forms synapses with muscle

(E) All of the above

a. is an ascending tract in the spinal cord

99
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The activation of which of the following receptors results in neuronal excitation?

(A) GABA-B receptors

(B) Glycine receptors

(C) GABA-A receptors

(D) AMPA receptors

(E) All the above

d. AMPA receptors

100
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Which of the following animal models is used to assess the potential anxiolytic effect of a drug?

(A) The elevated plus maze

(B) The forced swim test

(C) The novel object recognition test

(D) The open field test

(E) The 5-choice serial task

a. the elevated plus maze