PRACTICE TEST PT2

Converting a brightfield microscope for polarizing microscopy requires:

A. Two polarizing filters—one placed below the condenser and one placed between the objective and the eyepiece

B. A special condenser, two polarizing filters, and a Wollaston prism between the objective and the eyepiece

C. An annular diaphragm in the condenser and a phase-shifting element in the objective

D. A slit aperture below the condenser, a polarizing filter, and a modulator

A. Two polarizing filters—one placed below the condenser and one placed between the objective and the eyepiece

A bright-field microscope is easily adapted for dark-field microscopy by replacing the:

A. Ocular

B. Objective

C. Condenser

D. Polarizing filter

C. Condenser

The recommended cleaner for removing oil from objectives is:

A. 70% alcohol or lens cleaner

B. Xylene

C. Water

D. Benzene

A. 70% alcohol or lens cleaner

Delta check is a method that:

A. Determines the mean and variance of the instrument

B. Monitors the testing system for precision

C. Monitors patient samples day to day

D. Is determined in each laboratory facility

C. Monitors patient samples day to day

All of the following are analytical (examination) errors, except:

A. Oversight of instrument flags

B. Out-of-control QC results

C. Verbal reporting of results

D. Wrong assay performed

C. Verbal reporting of results

Staff responsibility in SPECIMEN MANAGEMENT, except:

A. Specimens and aliquots are stored properly

B. Specimens are centrifuged correctly

C. Specimens are delivered intact, sealed, and in a timely manner

D. Tests begun within specified time frames

C. Specimens are delivered intact, sealed, and in a timely manner

The positive predictive value predicts the probability that an individual with a positive assay result ___ the disease or condition.

A. Has (have)

B. Could have

C. May have

D. Will have

A. Has (have)

For adult capillary puncture:

A. Index finger

B. Ring finger

C.Index or ring finger

D. Middle or ring finger

D. Middle or ring finger

Proper application of the tourniquet:

A. Like a ribbon

B. Loop toward the shoulder

C. Ends pointed towards the shoulder

D. Ends pointed away from the shoulder

C. Ends pointed towards the shoulder

The tourniquet should not remain tied for more than _______ at a time.

A. 1 minutes

B. 2 minutes

C. 3 minutes

D. 4 minutes

A. 1 minutes

The tourniquet should be applied ______ above the venipuncture site

A. 1 to 2 inches

B. 3 to 4 inches

C. 6 to 8 inches

D. 10 to 12 inches

B. 3 to 4 inches

Blood pressure cuffs can be used as tourniquets. They are used primarily for veins that are difficult to locate. The cuff should be inflated to a pressure of:

A. 40 mm Hg

B. 80 mm Hg

C. 100 mm Hg

D. 120 mm Hg

A. 40 mm Hg

AccuVein is a handheld medical device that helps medical staff visualize veins before phlebotomy. The device emits ______ light and is held 7 inches over the potential phlebotomy site.

A. Visible light

B. Ultraviolet light

C. Infrared light

D. UV and infrared light

C. Infrared light

The advantage of using a ___-inch needle is that it provides better control during venipuncture.

A. 0.5-inch

B. 1-inch

C. 1.5-inch

D. 2-inch

B. 1-inch

Most evacuated tubes on the market have at least a _____ shelf life. It is important that tubes be stored under recommended conditions.

A. 1 month

B, 3 months

C. 6 months

D. 12 months

D. 12 months

Shelf life of an evacuated tube is defined by:

A. Stability of the additive

B. Vacuum retention

C. Both of these

D. None of these

C. Both of these

Higher temperatures can cause:

A. Decrease in blood draw volume

B. Increase in blood draw volume

C. Both of these

D. None of these

A. Decrease in blood draw volume

High altitude:

A. Decrease in blood draw volume

B. Increase in blood draw volume

C. Both of these

D. None of these

A. Decrease in blood draw volume

Leakage of a large amount of blood around the puncture site:

A. Ecchymosis (bruise)

B.Hematoma

B.Hematoma

Severe increase in abnormal erythrocytes in each microscopic field; an equivalent descriptive term is MANY:

A. 1+

B. 2+

C. 3+

D. 4+

C. 3+

The most common hemacytometer is the Levy chamber with improved Neubauer ruling. What is the total area of this counting chamber?

A. 1 mm2

B. 4 mm2

C. 9 mm2

D. 16 mm2

C. 9 mm2

Full conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin:

A. 1 minute

B. 3 minutes

C. 10 minutes

D. 30 minutes

C. 10 minutes

In the manual reticulocyte count, what is the ratio of blood and new methylene blue stain:

A. 1:1

B. 1:3

C. 2:1

D. 3:1

A. 1:1

Decreased ESR, EXCEPT:

A. Acanthocytosis

B. Bubbles in ESR column

C. Hyperfibrinogenemia

D. Spherocytosis

C. Hyperfibrinogenemia

Increased ESR:

A. Hyperalbuminemia

B. Hyperfibrinogenemia

C. Microcytosis

D. Polycythemia

B. Hyperfibrinogenemia

Increased ESR:

A. Delay in testing

B. Hyperalbuminemia

C. Marked anisocytosis

D. Tilted ESR tube

D. Tilted ESR tube

Leukemia:

A. Decreased ESR

B. Increased ESR

C. Indeterminate

D. No effect

B. Increased ESR

Marked leukocytosis:

A. Decreased ESR

B. Increased ESR

C. Indeterminate

D. No effect

A. Decreased ESR

Low room temperature:

A. Decreased ESR

B. Increased ESR

C. Indeterminate

D. No effect

A. Decreased ESR

Refrigerated sample not returned to room temperature:

A. Decreased ESR

B. Increased ESR

C. Indeterminate

D. No effect

B. Increased ESR

The major energy source for the platelet is ______, which is rapidly taken up from the plasma.

A. Fructose

B .Glucose

C. Proteins

D. Lipids

B .Glucose

The cellular ultrastructural component unique to the platelet is the:

A. Cytoplasmic membrane

B. Glycocalyx

C. Mitochondrion

D. Microtubule

B. Glycocalyx

Agents that are capable of aggregating platelets include:

A. Collagen

B. Thrombin

C. Serotonin

D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Reticulated platelets are cylindrical and beaded, resembling fragments of megakaryocyte proplatelet processes:

A. Citrate

B. EDTA

C. Heparin

D. Oxalate

A. Citrate

Effects of platelet clumps in most hematology analyzers:

A. Decreased platelets and WBCs

B. Increased platelets and WBCs

C. Decreased platelets, increased WBCs

D. Increased platelets, decreased WBCs

C. Decreased platelets, increased WBCs

Reference values for PTT in adults:

A. 12 to 14 seconds

B. 13 to 15 seconds

C. 25 to 35 seconds

D. 1 to 2 minutes

C. 25 to 35 seconds

Factor I deficiency:

A. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT

B. Normal PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT

C. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT

D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT

D. Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT

Resting phase:

A. Anaphase

B. Interphase

C. Metaphase

D. Telophase

B. Interphase

The cell selected for chromosome analysis is usually in the ________ stage of cellular division.

A. Prophase

B. Metaphase

C. Anaphase

D. Telophase

B. Metaphase

Renal hormone which stimulates and regulates the bone marrow production of red blood cells:

A. Interleukin 2

B. Interleukin 3

C. Erythropoietin

D. Thrombopoietin

C. Erythropoietin

RBC with membrane folded over:

A. Aplastic anemia

B. Iron deficiency anemia

C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease

D. Sickle cell anemia, thalassemia

A. Aplastic anemia

At 1 to 2 days of age, hemoglobin concentration is normally up to:

A. 12.0 g/dL

B. 14.5 g/dL

C. 16.0 g/dL

D. 22.5 g/dL

D. 22.5 g/dL

The WBC count of a newborn baby is up to:

A. 5 x 109 /L

B. 9 x 109 /L

C. 11 x 109 /L

D. 30 x 109 /L

D. 30 x 109 /L

Formed during the promyelocyte stage:

A. Primary (azurophilic) granules

B. Secondary (specific) granules

C. Tertiary granules

D. Secretory granules (vesicles)

A. Primary (azurophilic) granules

Latest method for performing a leukocyte differential count:

A. Manual review of blood film

B. Impedance

C. Light-scattering

D. Digital microscopy

D. Digital microscopy

Early indication of engraftment success after hematopoietic stem cell transplant:

A. RBC count

B. RBC and WBC count

C. Immature reticulocyte fraction

D. Immature reticulocyte fraction and immature platelet fraction

D. Immature reticulocyte fraction and immature platelet fraction

Solid tumor counterpart of monocytic leukemia:

A. Chloroma

B. Myeloma

C. Reticulum cell sarcoma

D. Well-differentiated lymphoma

C. Reticulum cell sarcoma

Solid tumor counterpart of plasma cell leukemia:

A. Chloroma

B. Myeloma

C. Reticulum cell sarcoma

D. Well-differentiated lymphoma

B. Myeloma

Cells have distinctive nuclear lobulation and have been termed "flower cells"

A. Acute myelogenous leukemia

B. Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma

C. Hairy cell leukemia

D. Hodgkin's lymphoma

B. Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma

Laser is an acronym for:

A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

B. Light augmentation by stimulated emission of radiation

C. Light amplification of stimulated energy radiation

D. Large-angle stimulated emission of radiation

A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

A few isolated aggregates; mostly free-floating cells; supernatant appears red:

A. Negative

B. Mixed-field

C. Trace

D. 1+

B. Mixed-field

Family of cytokines that enhance motility and promote migration of many types of white blood cells:

A. Interleukins

B. Interferons

C. Tumor necrosis factor

D. Chemokines

D. Chemokines

Serum amyloid A (SAA) has been found to increase significantly more in _____ infections

A. Bacterial infections

B. Fungal infections

C. Parasitic infections

D. Viral infections

A. Bacterial infections

The alternative complement pathway is activated by:

A. Antigen-antibody complexes

B. Bacterial and fungal cell walls

C. Carbohydrates in microbial cell walls

D. Properdin

B. Bacterial and fungal cell walls

Serum sickness, Arthus reaction and SLE:

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions

B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions

C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions

D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions

It is considered the gold standard in testing for contact dermatitis:

A. Mantoux test

B. Patch test

C. RIST

D. RAST

B. Patch test

Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune disease?

A. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener's granulomatosis)

B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Systemic lupus erythematosus

B. Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Anti-phospholipid antibodies have been found in up to 60 percent of patients with:

A. Colorectal cancer

B. Lupus

C. Tuberculosis

D. Syphilis

B. Lupus

Most specific for SLE, because they are mainly seen only in patients with lupus, and levels correlate with disease activity:

A. Anti-DNP

B. Anti-RNP

C. Anti-dsDNA

D. Anti-Smith

C. Anti-dsDNA

Antigen for the RPR and VDRL test:

A. Cardiolipin

B. Charcoal

C. Reagin

D. Nichol's strain of Treponema pallidum

A. Cardiolipin

Antigen for the RPR test is dispensed from a small plastic dispensing bottle with a calibrated ____ gauge needle.

A. 18-gauge needle

B. 19-gauge needle

C. 20-gauge needle

D. 21-gauge needle

C. 20-gauge needle

For RPR test, the card is rotated at:

A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes

B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes

C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes

D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes

For serum VDRL test, the slide is rotated at:

A. 100 rpm for 4 minutes

B. 100 rpm for 8 minutes

C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes

D. 180 rpm for 8 minutes

C. 180 rpm for 4 minutes

Which test is recommended for testing cerebrospinal fluid for detection of neurosyphilis?

A. RPR

B. VDRL

C. FTA-ABS

D. Enzyme immunoassay

B. VDRL

A rapid screening test to help determine the possibility of typhoid fever; the antigens used in this procedure include Salmonella O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens:

A. ELISA

B. Singer and Plotz

C. Weil-Felix

D. Widal

D. Widal

Primary antibody found in Helicobacter pylori infection:

A. IgA

B. IgE

C. IgG

D. IgM

C. IgG

Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of _____ species in serum samples:

A. Bordetella

B. Candida

C. Cryptococcus

D. Mycobacterium

B. Candida

First marker to appear in HBV infection, becoming detectable 2 to 10 weeks after exposure to HBV.

A. HBe Ag

B. HBs Ag

C. Anti-HBc IgM

D. Anti-HBs

B. HBs Ag

Posttransfusion hepatitis of unknown etiology; may be transmitted by parenteral exposure to blood, fecal-oral route and from mother to child:

A. HIV

B. HBV

C. HGV

D. TTV

D. TTV

Western blot negative test result:

A. No band

B. One band

C. Black band

D. Blue band

A. No band

First time a blood transfusion was recorded in history:

A. King George

B. Pope Innocent

C. Pope Pius

D. Queen Victoria

B. Pope Innocent

Attempts to find a nontoxic anticoagulant began in 1869, when Braxton Hicks recommended:

A. EDTA

B. Heparin

C. Sodium citrate

D. Sodium phosphate

D. Sodium phosphate

Reported the use of sodium citrate as an anticoagulant solution for transfusions:

A. Charles Drew

B. Edward Lindemann

C. Hustin

D. Lewisohn

C. Hustin

Determined the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and demonstrated its nontoxicity in small amounts:

A. Charles Drew

B. Edward Lindemann

C. Hustin

D. Lewisohn

D. Lewisohn

Second law of genetics:

A. Assortment

B. Characteristics

C. Dominance

D. Segregation

A. Assortment

The simplest type of mutation and includes substitutions, insertions, and deletions:

A. Frameshift mutation

B. Missense mutation

C. Nonsense mutation

D. Point mutation

D. Point mutation

Centrifugation time for the ABO tube test:

A. 20 seconds

B. 60 seconds

C. 2 minutes

D. 5 minutes

A. 20 seconds

Agglutination with yellow antiserum; no agglutination with blue antiserum:

A. Group A

B. Group B

C. Group A+

D. Group B+

B. Group B

Genotype of a Bombay individual:

A. hh

B. Hh

C. O

D. Oh

A. hh

Second most immunogenic Rh antigen:

A. D

B. C

C. E

D. c

D. c

The antigen was reported in 1973 and is present on RBCs of 4% of Indians, 11% of Iranians, and 12% of Arabs:

A. Cromer

B. Diego

C. Indian

D. Knops

C. Indian

Result in an increased rate of antibody uptake during sensitization and a decreased reaction incubation time:

A. 22% albumin

B. Enzymes

C. LISS

D. Polyethylene glycol

C. Indian

Deferral for donor with multiple puncture marks:

A. 4 weeks

B. 6 weeks

C. 12 months

D. Indefinite

D. Indefinite

Treatment with this drug is a cause of permanent donor deferral:

A. Accutane

B. Propecia

C. Proscar

D. Tegison

D. Tegison

Donors who have ingested aspirin, Feldene, or aspirin-containing medications should be deferred for plateletpheresis for:

A. 24 hours

B. 48 hours

C. 7 days

D. 14 days

B. 48 hours

Anticoagulant-preservative for modified whole blood:

A. ACD

B. CPD

C. CPDA-1

D. All of these

D. All of these

Frozen plasma stored at -65C:

A. 1 year

B. 2 years

C. 7 years

D. 10 years

C. 7 years

What component is most frequently involved with transfusion-associated sepsis?

A. Plasma

B. Packed red blood cells

C. Platelets

D. Whole blood

C. Platelets

Blue or purple spots in your mouth or skin can be a sign or symptom of:

A. Chagas disease

B. Hepatitis

C. HIV/AIDS

D. Malaria

C. HIV/AIDS

A zoonotic disease, is usually transmitted by the bite of an infected deer tick:

A. Babesiosis

B. Filariasis

C. Malaria

D. Toxoplasmosis

A. Babesiosis

A post-transfusion to pre-transfusion brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) ratio of ___ provides diagnosis of transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO):

A. 0.5

B. 1.5

C. 3.0

D. 4.5

B. 1.5

Antibodies not associated with HDN:

A. Duffy

B. I

C. Kell

D. Rh

B. I

The most important serologic test for diagnosing HDFN is the DAT with anti-IgG reagent. What is the specimen for this test?

A. Infant's serum or plasma

B. Mother's serum or plasma

C. Infant's RBCs

D. Mother's RBCs

C. Infant's RBCs

What is the most possible reason when first baby suffered from RH HDN?

A. Naturally occurring Rh antibodies

B. Strong immunogenicity of the D antigen

C. Leakage of fetal RBCs to maternal circulation

D. Prior exposure of mother to Rh+ red cells due to transfusion

D. Prior exposure of mother to Rh+ red cells due to transfusion

Mother should receive a full dose of RhIg within ____ of delivery:

A. 72 hours

B. 96 hours

C. 5 days

D. 7 days

A. 72 hours

Infection rate is highest for laboratory professionals exposed to blood and body fluids containing:

A. Hepatitis A

B. Hepatitis B

C. CMV

D. HIV

B. Hepatitis B

Which infectious agent is considered to be the primary occupational health hazard regarding transmission of bloodborne pathogens:

A. HIV

B. HBV

C. Tuberculosis

D. MRSA

B. HBV

It occurs in the bronchi of cigarette smokers as cellular adaptation to smoke:

A. Hypertrophy

B. Hyperplasia

C. Dysplasia

D. Metaplasia

D. Metaplasia

Due to chronic trauma induced by ill-fitting dentures:

A. Hypertrophy

B. Hyperplasia

C. Dysplasia

D. Metaplasia

B. Hyperplasia

Commercially available solution of formaldehyde:

A. 10%

B. 10 to 20%

C. 15 to 25%

D. 35 to 40%

D. 35 to 40%