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This type of flap allows for the greatest amount of increase in effective lift by increasing the total surface area of the wing.

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1

This type of flap allows for the greatest amount of increase in effective lift by increasing the total surface area of the wing.

Fowler

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2

These are electrical protective devices that prevent too much current from flowing to an electrical component

Fuses and circuit breakers

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3

Along with lubricating all mechanical moving parts internally, oil is used in a reciprocating engine to:

Cool the engine through an external heat exchange

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4

During climb to cruise you notice your engine is experiencing detonation. Which of the following steps would be suitable as a remedy (assuming you used the correct fuel grade)?

Increase airflow over the engine and enrichen the fuel/air mixture

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5

Semi-Monocoque

knowt flashcard image
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6

If the aircraft's electrical system fails (no alternator/generator and no battery), the engine will:

Continue running

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7

During normal alternator operation, the______ serves as a protection against surges in electrical current produced by the alternator and therefore should remain on.

Main battery

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8

To charge the battery, the alternator/generator voltage must be_____ _____ the rated voltage of the battery.

higher than

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9

The timing of the opening and closing of the intake/exhaust valves are controlled by the:

Camshaft

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10

If the recommended grade of fuel for your aircraft is not availabl:e, you should

Use the next higher grade fuel

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11

During this cycle of a reciprocating engine, both intake and exhaust valves are closed.

Compression

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12

A wing design where the main structure of the wing is supported by one spar, versus external bracing, is called a:

Cantilever wing

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13

Both the Cessna 172R and Robinson R22 use a "horizontally opposed" reciprocating engine for the powerplant. What is meant by the terminology "horizontally opposed"?

The cylinders are arranged horizontally on opposite (opposed) sides of the crankcase

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14

This reciprocating engine part joins the piston and crankshaft. It also serves as a means of taking lateral motion and transitioning it into rotational motion.

Connecting rod

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15

When your battery is supporting the load of your electrical system, it will be noted by:

Discharge indication (negative) on the ammeter

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16

The highest potential for carburetor ice is when the outside temperature is between_____ and______and the relative humidity is greater than_____.

20° F. 70° F. 80%

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17

Soon after shutting down your fuel-injected reciprocating engine on a hot day, you go to restart your engine without running the auxiliary fuel pump prior to start and the engine won't start. What condition most likely caused this?

Vapor lock

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18

You realize your static port is blocked while in cruise After switching to your alternate static port (located within the unpressurized cabin), all three pitot-static instruments show an increase in indications. Why is that?

The pressure inside the cabin is lower due to the "venturi effect" of airflow around the cabin

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19

While in cruise you start picking up light turbulence. Which V-speed/airspeed should you ensure you are below that would to ensure your aircraft isn't overstressed?

Maximum structural cruising speed

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20

Due to orientation in space with the rotating Earth, the___ ____will drift approximately______every 15 minutes and must be adjusted accordingly.

heading indicator, 3°

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21

Why is there a difference in true airspeed and indicated airspeed?

Indicated airspeed does not correct for installation error and nonstandard temperatures/pressures

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22

Which instrument can indicate to you whether your aircraft is in a slip or skid?

Inclinometer

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23

What is the purpose to the calibrated leak on the vertical speed indicator?

Allows the pressure to change within the instrument case only at a given rate

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24

Density altitudes takes what two factors into consideration?

Non-standard day pressure and temperature

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25

As altitude increases, the static pressure will_______. This will cause the aneroid wafer in the altimeter to_______ , showing you at a higher altitude.

decrease, expand

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26

While turning from a heading of south to the right in the northern hemisphere, the compass will initially show a turn toward:

The west, but at a faster rate of degree heading change than than you are actually turning

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27

Which of the following flight instruments in connected to the pitot tube?

Airspeed Indicator

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28

On the attitude indicator,_____ _____ help keep the gyro upright.

pendulous vanes

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29

What is an instant indication of a static port blockage?

Altimeter indication doesn't change with change in altitude

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30

Gyroscopic flight instruments are susceptible to precession. Precession is a turning/tilting force that is reacted_____ from where the force was applied, in the direction of rotation of the gyro.

90°

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31

You're flying in cruise at 10,000 feet MSL when your airspeed indication rapidly decreases to "O". What is the most likely cause?

The ram-air inlet on the pitot tube became blocked

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32

Due to counter-weights on the compass card, as the aircraft accelerates on an east heading the indication will show a turn toward the:

North

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33

You're flying in cruise at 10,000 feet MSL when your static port becomes blocked. What precaution should you take in regards to airspeeds while on approach?

Your indicated airspeed will be lower than normal indication and you should fly at a faster than normal approach speed

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34

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

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35

(Refer to Figure 1.) The acute angle A is the angle of

Attack

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36

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

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37

The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of

attack

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38

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

remain the same regardless of gross weight.

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39

What force makes an airplane turn?

The horizontal component of lift.

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40

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

developing lift.

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41

What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

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42

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon the

speed of the airplane.

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43

Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at

less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.

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44

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

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45

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

Stalled.

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46

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

Outward, upward, and around each tip.

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47

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.

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48

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.

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49

One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to

increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

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50

When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed

nullify all attempts at accuracy in judgment of gliding distance and landing spot.

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51

Why is there a difference in usable and total fuel?

Fuel in the sump of each tank is not collected

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52

The oil pressure gauge on your aircraft is showing a below normal indication during normal operations. This can be caused by:

Low oil quantity

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53

Which of the following is an indication of "detonation"?

Engine roughness

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54

You are flying in cruise when you notice your carbureted engine RPM's start to decrease indication on the tachometer. Which of the following is not likely a cause of this RPM decrease?

Your engine is running at peak exhaust gas temperature

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55

In a carburetor, how is the fuel forced to discharge through the discharge nozzle?

Air is forced to speed up in the venturi, therefore creating lower pressure inside the venturi than compared to air pressure in the float chamber

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56

The danger in a muffler shroud cabin heating system is:

potential for carbon monoxide poisoning if there is a leak

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57

A sign of a fouled spark plug can be determined by

Isolating one magneto at a time and noting if engine roughness exist on one magneto

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58

Fuel-injected engines provide many advantages over carbureted engines. Which of the following is listed as one of those advantages?

Better fuel flow

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59

On the vertical stabilizer is attached which control surface?

Rudder

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60

True altitude is your altitude above:

Average sea-level hight

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61

The magnetic compass north seeking end points toward magnetic north. Variation is the degree of correction between magnetic north and:

True north

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62

The "bottom" or lowest value within the white arc represents which V-speed?

Vso

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63

On your airspeed indicator, the green arc represents which range of airspeeds?

Normal operating range

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64

While turning from a heading of north to the right in the northern hemisphere, the compass will initially show a turn toward:

The west

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65

While in cruise you start picking up light turbulence. Which V-speed/airspeed should you ensure you are below that would to ensure your aircraft isn't overstressed?

Maximum structural cruising speed

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66

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

light, quartering tailwind.

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67

Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the

direction of the relative wind.

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68

Which statement relates to Bernoulli`s principle?

Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

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69

Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft`s

aerodynamic balance and controllability.

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70

During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?

Both wings are stalled.

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71

Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft

Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

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72

What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?

Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

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73

What is ground effect?

The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.

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74

If an emergency situation requires a downwind landing, pilots should expect a faster

groundspeed at touchdown, a longer ground roll, and the likelihood of overshooting the desired touchdown point.

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75

The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

lift, weight, thrust, and drag.

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76

A turbosupercharger and supercharger help increase overall engine performance by:

Maintaining rated horsepower at higher altitudes

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77

Fuel-injected engines provide many advantages over carbureted engines. Which of the following is listed as one of those advantages?

Better fuel flow

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78

At the termination of your flight you turn your ignition key to "OFF" and the engine keeps running normally. This is a sign that:

One or both magnetos are not grounding

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79

What causes the vortex to generate around the tip of an airfoil?

Unequal lift distribution span-wise

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80

If the initial tendency for an aircraft is to depart from its attitude at an increasing rate when disturbed by an outside force, the aircraft is:

Statically unstable (negative static stability)

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81

As a fluid's velocity increases, it's static pressure:

Decreases

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82

The danger of ground effect on takeoff is:

The aircraft may become airborne at an airspeed that is unsafe to fly outside of ground effect

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83

The angle of attack is the angle between the_______ and the relative wind.

Chordline

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84

On an airfoil, as the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point moves:

Down on the leading edge

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85

The service ceiling (on a single engine aircraft) is where the maximum rate of climb is:

100 feet per minute

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86

Which of the following will cause an increase in stall speed:

Increasing bank angle

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87

Induced drag is caused by:

The creation of lift

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88

To decrease the radius of turn, you can:

Decrease airspeed

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89

If you have an emergency and you are not currently talking to AC, which frequency would you communicate that emergency on?

121.5

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90

One a two-bar VASI, what is the "on glide-path" indication?

Red light on the far bar, white light on the near bar

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91

You depart KAFW (Fort Worth Alliance airport) at 10:15 AM CST. You fly to KADM (Ardmore, OK; -6 from UTC) on a cross- country flight lasting 1 hour and 35 minutes. What time will you land there in Zulu (UTC)?

1750Z

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92

Which of the following is an example of a "non-movement" area at an airport?

Ramp

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93

Which of the following practices will help you avoid a runway incursion?

All of these

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94

You and another aircraft, same category, are converging to the same spot in the air (not head on). Who has the right of away?

The aircraft to the other's right

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95

In which of the following airspace is a "Mode C" or "Mode S" transponder always required?

Class B

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96

Cross over from a taxiway to a runway

<p>Cross over from a taxiway to a runway</p>
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97

Which of the following represent what would be seen at night airport beacon wise at a military airport?

Two flashes of white followed by a flash of green light

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98

This wind direction indicator points to the direction the wind is blowing toward.

Wind Sock

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99

What does a yellow "X" indicate on a runway?

The runway is closed

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100

While coming into land with more than 2 other aircraft on final approach. Who has the right of way?

The lower of all aircraft on final

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