questions - Drug Therapy for Insomnia & Anxiety

Which herbal remedy is contraindicated in individuals with renal disease and should not be used during pregnancy or lactation?

A) Kava

B) Melatonin

C) Valerian

D) Chamomile

Correct Answer: A) Kava

Rationale:

Kava is contraindicated in individuals with renal disease due to its potential adverse effects on platelets and lymphocytes. It should also be avoided during pregnancy and lactation due to concerns about its safety.

Melatonin (B) is cautioned in individuals with hepatic disease but is not specifically contraindicated in those with renal disease or during pregnancy/lactation.

Valerian (C) is cautioned in individuals with hepatic disease and pregnancy, but there is no specific mention of renal disease.

Chamomile (D) does not have specific contraindications related to renal disease or pregnancy/lactation.

Which herbal remedy influences sleep-wake cycles and should be used with caution in individuals with hepatic disease?

A) Kava

B) Melatonin

C) Valerian

D) Ginseng

Correct Answer: B) Melatonin

Rationale:

Melatonin influences sleep-wake cycles and should be used cautiously in individuals with hepatic disease due to the potential for adverse reactions such as confusion, headache, and tachycardia.

Kava (A) is contraindicated in individuals with renal disease and should not be used during pregnancy/lactation, but it is not specifically cautioned in hepatic disease.

Valerian (C) is cautioned in individuals with hepatic disease but is not specifically associated with influencing sleep-wake cycles like melatonin.

Ginseng (D) is not typically used as an herbal remedy for insomnia and does not have specific cautions related to hepatic disease.

Which medication class is recommended for short-term treatment of anxiety disorders and insomnia but should not be abruptly stopped due to potential withdrawal symptoms?

A) Antidepressants

B) Antipsychotics

C) Benzodiazepines

D) Beta-blockers

Correct Answer: C) Benzodiazepines

Rationale:

Benzodiazepines are recommended for short-term treatment of anxiety disorders and insomnia. However, abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms, emphasizing the importance of gradual tapering.

Antidepressants (A) are used for long-term treatment of anxiety disorders but are not typically recommended for short-term use or associated with withdrawal symptoms upon abrupt cessation.

Antipsychotics (B) are not typically used as first-line treatment for anxiety disorders or insomnia and do not have withdrawal symptoms associated with their discontinuation.

Beta-blockers (D) are used primarily for managing symptoms of anxiety such as palpitations and tremors but are not indicated for insomnia and do not have withdrawal symptoms associated with their discontinuation.

Which herbal remedy is thought to increase gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and may cause blurred vision and cardiac issues?

A) Kava

B) Melatonin

C) Valerian

D) St. John's Wort

Correct Answer: C) Valerian

Rationale:

Valerian is thought to increase GABA levels and may cause adverse reactions such as blurred vision and cardiac issues.

Kava (A) is also thought to increase GABA but is associated with adverse reactions such as decreased platelets and lymphocytes, not blurred vision or cardiac issues.

Melatonin (B) influences sleep-wake cycles and is not typically associated with blurred vision or cardiac issues.

St. John's Wort (D) is used for depression and is not associated with GABA or the mentioned adverse reactions.

Which CNS depressant medication class is relatively safe for short-term treatment of anxiety disorders and insomnia and includes both short-acting and long-acting formulations?

A) Barbiturates

B) Antipsychotics

C) Benzodiazepines

D) Antidepressants

Correct Answer: C) Benzodiazepines

Rationale:

Benzodiazepines are relatively safe for short-term treatment of anxiety disorders and insomnia. They are available in both short-acting and long-acting formulations, providing flexibility in dosing.

Barbiturates (A) are not commonly used due to safety concerns and a high potential for dependence and overdose.

Antipsychotics (B) are not typically used as first-line treatment for anxiety disorders or insomnia.

Antidepressants (D) are used for long-term treatment of anxiety disorders and depression but are not typically recommended for short-term use.

Which of the following benzodiazepines is classified as short-acting and has a half-life of less than 5 hours?

A) Temazepam

B) Lorazepam

C) Clonazepam

D) Alprazolam

Correct Answer: D) Alprazolam

Rationale:

Alprazolam is a short-acting benzodiazepine with a half-life of less than 5 hours, fitting the mnemonic "ATOM."

Temazepam (A), lorazepam (B), and clonazepam (C) are all intermediate-acting benzodiazepines, not short-acting.

Which benzodiazepine has a long half-life ranging from 20 to 100 hours and is used for indications including antianxiety, hypnotic, and seizures?

A) Diazepam

B) Clonazepam

C) Lorazepam

D) Triazolam

Correct Answer: A) Diazepam

Rationale:

Diazepam has a long half-life ranging from 20 to 100 hours, making it a long-acting benzodiazepine. It is indicated for antianxiety, hypnotic, and seizure disorders.

Clonazepam (B) and lorazepam (C) are intermediate-acting benzodiazepines.

Triazolam (D) is a short-acting benzodiazepine.

Which benzodiazepine is contraindicated in patients with pulmonary conditions, liver disease, a history of alcohol/drug abuse, and pregnancy?

A) Lorazepam

B) Diazepam

C) Clonazepam

D) Oxazepam

Correct Answer: B) Diazepam

Rationale:

Diazepam is contraindicated in patients with pulmonary conditions, liver disease, a history of alcohol/drug abuse, and pregnancy, as outlined in its contraindications.

Lorazepam (A), clonazepam (C), and oxazepam (D) have different contraindications or cautions but are not specifically contraindicated in all the mentioned conditions.

Which benzodiazepine is not metabolized in the liver and is considered safe for patients with liver failure?

A) Temazepam

B) Lorazepam

C) Diazepam

D) Oxazepam

Correct Answer: D) Oxazepam

Rationale:

Oxazepam is not metabolized in the liver and is considered safe for patients with liver failure, fitting the mnemonic "Out The Liver."

Temazepam (A), lorazepam (B), and diazepam (C) are metabolized in the liver and may pose risks in patients with liver dysfunction.

What is the black box warning associated with diazepam (Valium)?

A) Risk of respiratory depression

B) Risk of serotonin syndrome

C) Risk of hepatotoxicity

D) Risk of combining with alcohol

Correct Answer: D) Risk of combining with alcohol

Rationale:

The black box warning associated with diazepam (Valium) is the risk of combining with alcohol, emphasizing the dangers of mixing benzodiazepines with alcohol.

Respiratory depression (A) is a potential adverse effect of benzodiazepines but is not specifically mentioned in the black box warning for diazepam.

Serotonin syndrome (B) is associated with serotonergic medications, not benzodiazepines.

Hepatotoxicity (C) is not a black box warning associated with diazepam.

What is the recommended antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?

A) Naloxone

B) Flumazenil

C) Naltrexone

D) Physostigmine

Correct Answer: B) Flumazenil

Rationale:

Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity and can be administered intravenously over 15 seconds.

Naloxone (A) is an opioid antagonist and is used to reverse opioid overdose, not benzodiazepine toxicity.

Naltrexone (C) is also an opioid antagonist used for long-term management of opioid dependence.

Physostigmine (D) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat anticholinergic toxicity, not benzodiazepine toxicity.

Which benzodiazepine is commonly used in alcohol withdrawal and should not be taken with grapefruit juice?

A) Lorazepam

B) Alprazolam

C) Chlordiazepoxide

D) Midazolam

Correct Answer: C) Chlordiazepoxide

Rationale:

Chlordiazepoxide is commonly used in alcohol withdrawal and should not be taken with grapefruit juice due to potential drug interactions.

Lorazepam (A) and alprazolam (B) do not have specific warnings regarding grapefruit juice.

Midazolam (D) is primarily used for preoperative sedation and does not have grapefruit juice interactions.

Which benzodiazepine is contraindicated in patients with liver disease and has a rapid onset of action, requiring administration while in bed?

A) Lorazepam

B) Alprazolam

C) Temazepam

D) Triazolam

Correct Answer: D) Triazolam

Rationale:

Triazolam is contraindicated in patients with liver disease and has a rapid onset of action, necessitating administration while in bed to avoid falls or other accidents.

Lorazepam (A) and alprazolam (B) do not have specific contraindications related to liver disease.

Temazepam (C) is commonly used as a sleep aid in the elderly and those with liver disease.

Which non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic is approved for long-term use and should not be taken by the elderly due to its fast onset of action?

A) Lorazepam

B) Eszopiclone

C) Midazolam

D) Temazepam

Correct Answer: B) Eszopiclone

Rationale:

Eszopiclone is approved for long-term use but should not be taken by the elderly due to its fast onset of action, which can increase the risk of falls or cognitive impairment.

Lorazepam (A) and midazolam (C) are benzodiazepines with different indications and onset of action.

Temazepam (D) is commonly used as a sleep aid in the elderly.

Which benzodiazepine carries a black box warning for profound respiratory depression when administered for pre-procedure sedation?

A) Lorazepam

B) Alprazolam

C) Midazolam

D) Temazepam

Correct Answer: C) Midazolam

Rationale:

Midazolam carries a black box warning for profound respiratory depression when administered for pre-procedure sedation, emphasizing the need for careful monitoring and airway protection.

Lorazepam (A), alprazolam (B), and temazepam (D) do not have black box warnings specifically related to respiratory depression during pre-procedure sedation.

Which non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic has a rapid onset of sleep and a half-life of approximately 1 hour, making it suitable for short-term use?

A) Ramelteon

B) Zaleplon

C) Zolpidem

D) Eszopiclone

Correct Answer: B) Zaleplon

Rationale:

Zaleplon has a rapid onset of sleep and a short half-life of approximately 1 hour, making it suitable for short-term use in managing insomnia.

Ramelteon (A) is used to assist with the onset of sleep but has a short half-life.

Zolpidem (C) is also used for short-term insomnia but has a longer half-life of 2.5 hours.

Eszopiclone (D) is not mentioned in the options and has a longer half-life compared to zaleplon.

Which type of depression is characterized by a chronically depressed mood along with at least two additional symptoms persisting for at least two years?

A) Postpartum depression

B) Unipolar depression

C) Dysthymia depression

D) Major depressive disorder

Correct Answer: C) Dysthymia depression

Rationale:

Dysthymia depression is characterized by a chronically depressed mood along with at least two additional symptoms persisting for at least two years, distinguishing it from other types of depression.

Postpartum depression (A) occurs after childbirth and is typically unipolar in nature.

Unipolar depression (B) refers to depression without the occurrence of manic or hypomanic episodes.

Major depressive disorder (D) is characterized by episodes of major depression but may not have a chronic course like dysthymia.

Which class of antidepressants has a narrow therapeutic index and primarily blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine, serotonin, and acetylcholine?

A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

B) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

C) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

D) Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct Answer: C) Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

Rationale:

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have a narrow therapeutic index and primarily block the reuptake of norepinephrine, serotonin, and acetylcholine, contributing to their mechanism of action.

SSRIs (A) primarily inhibit serotonin reuptake, while SNRIs (D) inhibit both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake.

MAOIs (B) inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of neurotransmitters such as serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine.

Which antidepressant carries a black box warning for suicidal thoughts and ideation?

A) Fluoxetine

B) Venlafaxine

C) Amitriptyline

D) Imipramine

Correct Answer: D) Imipramine

Rationale:

Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), carries a black box warning for suicidal thoughts and ideation, necessitating careful monitoring, especially in the initial weeks of treatment.

Fluoxetine (A) is an SSRI and carries a black box warning for suicidality in children, adolescents, and young adults.

Venlafaxine (B) is an SNRI and also carries a black box warning for suicidality.

Amitriptyline (C) is another TCA but is not specifically mentioned in this context

Which type of depression is treated with psychotherapy and antidepressants and typically occurs after childbirth?

A) Postpartum depression

B) Unipolar depression

C) Dysthymia depression

D) Major depressive disorder

Correct Answer: A) Postpartum depression

Rationale:

Postpartum depression is a type of depression that occurs after childbirth and is treated with a combination of psychotherapy and antidepressants, reflecting its unique clinical presentation and treatment approach.

Unipolar depression (B) is a broader term referring to depression without manic or hypomanic episodes.

Dysthymia depression (C) is characterized by chronic low mood over an extended period.

Major depressive disorder (D) encompasses episodes of severe depression but may not necessarily be linked to childbirth.

Which antidepressant medication is associated with a black box warning for increased risk of suicide, particularly when used for smoking cessation?

A) Fluoxetine (Prozac)

B) Venlafaxine (Effexor)

C) Phenelzine (Nardil)

D) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Correct Answer: D) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Rationale:

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) carries a black box warning for increased risk of suicide, especially in younger individuals, and is no longer recommended for smoking cessation due to this risk.

Fluoxetine (A), venlafaxine (B), and phenelzine (C) do not have black box warnings specifically related to suicide in the context of smoking cessation.

Which class of antidepressants carries a black box warning for suicidal ideation in children, adolescents, and young adults?

A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

B) Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

C) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

D) Atypical antidepressants

Correct Answer: A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Rationale:

SSRIs, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), carry a black box warning for suicidal ideation in children, adolescents, and young adults, highlighting the need for close monitoring during treatment initiation.

SNRIs (B), MAOIs (C), and atypical antidepressants (D) may have their own warnings and precautions, but they do not have a black box warning specifically related to suicidal ideation in this population.

Which class of antidepressants has a significant risk of hypertensive crisis if taken with tyramine-rich foods such as aged cheese and wine?

A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

B) Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

C) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

D) Atypical antidepressants

Correct Answer: C) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

Rationale:

MAOIs, such as phenelzine (Nardil), have a significant risk of hypertensive crisis if taken with tyramine-rich foods due to inhibition of monoamine oxidase enzyme activity, leading to increased levels of tyramine.

SSRIs (A) and SNRIs (B) do not have this specific dietary restriction.

Atypical antidepressants (D) like bupropion do not interact with tyramine-rich foods in the same way as MAOIs.

Which atypical antidepressant medication is commonly used for depression, seasonal affective disorder, and smoking cessation but is associated with a risk of seizures at higher doses?

A) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

B) Desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)

C) Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

D) Trazodone

Correct Answer: A) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Rationale:

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) is an atypical antidepressant used for depression, seasonal affective disorder, and smoking cessation. However, it is associated with a risk of seizures, particularly at higher doses.

Desvenlafaxine (B), duloxetine (C), and trazodone (D) do not have the same seizure risk profile as bupropion.

Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) has a long half-life and is safer for use in older adults?

A) Fluoxetine (Prozac)

B) Sertraline (Zoloft)

C) Escitalopram (Lexapro)

D) Paroxetine (Paxil)

Correct Answer: A) Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Rationale:

Fluoxetine (Prozac) has a long half-life and is considered safer for use in older adults due to its gradual onset of action and slower elimination, allowing for less frequent dosing and reduced risk of adverse effects.

Sertraline (B), escitalopram (C), and paroxetine (D) have shorter half-lives and may require more careful dosing adjustments in older adults.

Which atypical antidepressant is primarily used for sleep and sedation, often administered with food due to its adverse reactions, which include sedation, dizziness, and priapism?

A) Mirtazapine (Remeron)

B) Trazodone

C) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

D) Desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)

Correct Answer: B) Trazodone

Rationale:

Trazodone is an atypical antidepressant primarily used for sleep and sedation, commonly administered with food to minimize adverse reactions such as sedation, dizziness, and the rare but serious adverse effect of priapism.

Mirtazapine (A) is also an atypical antidepressant but is not primarily indicated for sleep.

Bupropion (C) and desvenlafaxine (D) are not associated with the same sedative effects as trazodone.

Which mood stabilizer has an unknown mechanism of action and requires careful monitoring of renal, cardiac, and thyroid function due to potential adverse effects such as metallic taste, tremors, and polyuria?

A) Lithium

B) Aripiprazole (Abilify)

C) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

D) Quetiapine (Seroquel)

Correct Answer: A) Lithium

Rationale:

Lithium is a mood stabilizer with an unknown mechanism of action, and it requires careful monitoring of renal, cardiac, and thyroid function due to potential adverse effects such as metallic taste, tremors, and polyuria.

Aripiprazole (B), olanzapine (C), and quetiapine (D) are atypical antipsychotics used in the treatment of bipolar disorder but do not have the same adverse effect profile as lithium.

Which atypical antipsychotic medication is associated with a black box warning for an increased risk of mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis?

A) Aripiprazole (Abilify)

B) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

C) Quetiapine (Seroquel)

D) Risperidone (Risperdal)

Correct Answer: D) Risperidone (Risperdal)

Rationale:

Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic associated with a black box warning for an increased risk of mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, necessitating cautious use in this population.

Aripiprazole (A), olanzapine (B), and quetiapine (C) do not carry the same black box warning regarding mortality in elderly patients with dementia.

Which atypical antipsychotic medication is used as monotherapy for mixed bipolar disorder and is associated with a black box warning for compulsive or uncontrollable urges, particularly in children aged 8-17?

A) Aripiprazole (Abilify)

B) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

C) Quetiapine (Seroquel)

D) Risperidone (Risperdal)

Correct Answer: A) Aripiprazole (Abilify)

Rationale:

Aripiprazole is used as monotherapy for mixed bipolar disorder and carries a black box warning for compulsive or uncontrollable urges, particularly in children aged 8-17. This warning emphasizes the need for careful monitoring in this population.

Olanzapine (B), quetiapine (C), and risperidone (D) do not have the same black box warning related to compulsive urges in children.

Which mood stabilizer has a narrow therapeutic index and is commonly associated with adverse reactions such as sedation, nausea, vomiting, and suicidal ideation in children, adolescents, and young adults?

A) Lithium

B) Aripiprazole (Abilify)

C) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

D) Quetiapine (Seroquel)

Correct Answer: A) Lithium

Rationale:

Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index and is commonly associated with adverse reactions such as sedation, nausea, vomiting, and suicidal ideation, particularly in children, adolescents, and young adults. This underscores the importance of close monitoring during treatment.

Aripiprazole (B), olanzapine (C), and quetiapine (D) may have their own adverse effects, but they are not specifically known for causing these reactions in the same population as lithium.

What is the primary indication for chlorpromazine, a first-generation antipsychotic phenothiazine?

A) Bipolar disorder

B) Excessive anxiety

C) Major depressive disorder

D) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

Correct Answer: B) Excessive anxiety

Rationale:

Chlorpromazine is primarily indicated for the treatment of excessive anxiety, among other psychiatric conditions.

Bipolar disorder (A) may be managed with mood stabilizers or other antipsychotic medications.

Major depressive disorder (C) is typically treated with antidepressants.

ADHD (D) is managed with stimulant medications or non-stimulant options.

What is the mechanism of action of first-generation antipsychotics like chlorpromazine?

A) Inhibition of serotonin reuptake

B) Blockade of dopamine receptors

C) Enhancement of GABAergic neurotransmission

D) Antagonism of NMDA receptors

Correct Answer: B) Blockade of dopamine receptors

Rationale:

First-generation antipsychotics, including chlorpromazine, primarily exert their therapeutic effects by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, leading to a reduction in psychotic symptoms.

Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe the mechanism of action of first-generation antipsychotics.

Which adverse reaction is associated with tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and dystonia, commonly observed with the use of first-generation antipsychotics like chlorpromazine?

A) Hypertension

B) Respiratory depression

C) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

D) Hepatotoxicity

Correct Answer: C) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

Rationale:

Tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and dystonia are all types of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) associated with the use of first-generation antipsychotics like chlorpromazine.

Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with EPS.

What nursing consideration is essential prior to administering chlorpromazine?

A) Monitoring blood glucose levels

B) Assessing for signs of serotonin syndrome

C) Performing an electrocardiogram (ECG)

D) Checking liver function tests

Correct Answer: C) Performing an electrocardiogram (ECG)

Rationale:

Prior to administering chlorpromazine, it is essential to perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to assess cardiac function and monitor for potential QT interval prolongation, which can be associated with certain antipsychotic medications.

Options A, B, and D are not specific nursing considerations for chlorpromazine.

Which medication is commonly co-administered with chlorpromazine to mitigate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)?

A) Benztropine

B) Alprazolam

C) Lorazepam

D) Olanzapine

Correct Answer: A) Benztropine

Rationale:

Benztropine is commonly co-administered with chlorpromazine to mitigate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and dystonia.

Alprazolam (B) and lorazepam (C) are benzodiazepines used for anxiety and agitation, not EPS.

Olanzapine (D) is a second-generation antipsychotic with a lower risk of EPS compared to chlorpromazine.

Which atypical antipsychotic medication carries a black box warning for the risk of death in older patients with dementia and is associated with adverse reactions such as agranulocytosis, hyperglycemia, and seizures?

A) Clozapine (Clozaril)

B) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

C) Lurasidone (Latuda)

D) Haloperidol (Haldol)

Correct Answer: A) Clozapine (Clozaril)

Rationale:

Clozapine (Clozaril) carries a black box warning for the risk of death in older patients with dementia and is associated with adverse reactions such as agranulocytosis (a potentially life-threatening decrease in white blood cell count), hyperglycemia, and seizures.

Olanzapine (B), lurasidone (C), and haloperidol (D) do not have the same black box warning or adverse reaction profile as clozapine.

What is a significant adverse reaction associated with haloperidol, a first-generation nonphenothiazine antipsychotic?

A) Constipation

B) Tardive dyskinesia

C) Weight gain

D) Hypertension

Correct Answer: B) Tardive dyskinesia

Rationale:

Tardive dyskinesia, characterized by involuntary movements such as repetitive facial grimacing or tongue protrusion, is a significant adverse reaction associated with the use of haloperidol, a first-generation nonphenothiazine antipsychotic.

Constipation (A), weight gain (C), and hypertension (D) are not typically associated with haloperidol.

Which second-generation atypical antipsychotic medication requires baseline monitoring of complete blood count (CBC) and blood sugar due to the risk of adverse reactions such as leukopenia/neutropenia, hyperglycemia, and elevated liver function tests (LFTs)?

A) Clozapine (Clozaril)

B) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

C) Lurasidone (Latuda)

D) Haloperidol (Haldol)

Correct Answer: B) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

Rationale:

Olanzapine (Zyprexa) requires baseline monitoring of CBC and blood sugar due to the risk of adverse reactions such as leukopenia/neutropenia, hyperglycemia, and elevated LFTs.

Clozapine (A), lurasidone (C), and haloperidol (D) may have their own monitoring requirements, but they do not specifically require monitoring for these adverse reactions.

Which atypical antipsychotic medication has a black box warning for use in older adults with dementia and shares similar adverse reactions with olanzapine, including leukopenia/neutropenia, EPS, drowsiness, and elevated liver function tests?

A) Clozapine (Clozaril)

B) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

C) Lurasidone (Latuda)

D) Haloperidol (Haldol)

Correct Answer: C) Lurasidone (Latuda)

Rationale:

Lurasidone (Latuda) has a black box warning for use in older adults with dementia and shares similar adverse reactions with olanzapine, including leukopenia/neutropenia, EPS, drowsiness, and elevated liver function tests.

Clozapine (A), olanzapine (B), and haloperidol (D) do not have the same black box warning or adverse reaction profile as lurasidone.

Which second-generation atypical antipsychotic medication should be tapered when discontinuing treatment?

A) Clozapine (Clozaril)

B) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

C) Lurasidone (Latuda)

D) Haloperidol (Haldol)

Correct Answer: C) Lurasidone (Latuda)

Rationale:

Lurasidone (Latuda) should be tapered when discontinuing treatment to minimize the risk of withdrawal symptoms or relapse of psychiatric symptoms.

Clozapine (A), olanzapine (B), and haloperidol (D) may also require tapering in certain situations, but it is not a specific recommendation for these medications.