MMSC433 Final Exam practice questions

Why is Rouleaux formation associated with Multiple Myeloma and Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia?

A. abnormal proteins secreted from megakaryocytes coat red blood cells causing them to appear stacked on the peripheral blood smear

B. abnormal proteins produced from T lymphocytes coat red blood cells causing them to appear stacked on the peripheral blood smear

C. abnormal proteins produced from segmented neutrophils coat red blood cells causing them to appear stacked on the peripheral blood smear

D. abnormal proteins produced from myeloma cells coat red blood cells causing them to appear stacked on the peripheral blood smear

abnormal proteins produced from myeloma cells coat red blood cells causing them to appear stacked on the peripheral blood smear

A "dry tap" bone marrow aspiration may be seen with what chronic myeloid proliferative disease?

A. Essential Thrombocythemia

B. Polycythemia Vera

C. Primary Myelofibrosis

D. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

Primary Myelofibrosis

What clinical feature is more often associated with essential thrombocythemia than with the other chronic myeloproliferative disorders?

A. bleeding and thrombosis

B. infections

C. splenomegaly

D. fatigue

bleeding and thrombosis

How is Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia described?

A. Abnormal IgA immunoglobulin produced from pathological plasma cells

B. Abnormal IgD immunoglobulin produced from pathological plasma cells

C. Abnormal IgG immunoglobulin produced from pathological plasma cells

D. abnormal IgM Immunoglobulin produced from pathological plasma cells

abnormal IgM Immunoglobulin produced from pathological plasma cells

The presence of this cell is definitive for Hodgkins Lymphoma:

A. Flame cell

B. Reed-Sternberg cell

C. dendritic cell

D. Plasma cell

Reed-Sternberg cell

Which of the following is a B cell marker?

A. CD4

B. CD20

C. CD8

D. CD2

CD20

What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in Polycythemia Vera (PV)?

A. BCR-ABL

B. PML-RARA

C. TET2

D. JAK2V617F

JAK2V617F

This finding can be present in both Multiple Myeloma and Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

A. High MCV

B. Bence- Jones proteinuria

C. decreased serum iron

D. Glycosuria

Bence- Jones proteinuria

Which of the following is an expected finding in polycythemia vera?

A. normal white cell count

B. anemia

C. increased RBC mass

D. low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

increased RBC mass

Which of the following is seen in Burkitt's Lymphoma?

A. granules stain reddish-orange

B. lymphocyte cells have hairy cytoplasmic projections

C. lymphocytic cells have vacuoles in basophilic cytoplasm

D. lymphocytic cells have Auer rods

lymphocytic cells have vacuoles in basophilic cytoplasm

A patient has a normal white cell count, a moderately high platelet count, and mild anemia. The differential shows immature granulocytes, nucleated red cells, and teardrop-shaped red cells. Which of the following is most likely?

A. chronic myelogenous leukemia

B. primary myelofibrosis

C. polycythemia vera

D. essential thrombocythemia

primary myelofibrosis

Burkitt's Lymphoma has been linked to what virus?

A. Epstein-Barr

B. HTLV-I

C. HIV

D. HEP C

Epstein-Barr

Sudan Black B is used to distinguish which types of leukemia?

A. acute promyelocytic leukemia from acute monocytic leukemia

B. acute myeloid leukemia from acute promyelocytic leukemia

C. acute myeloid leukemia from acute lymphoblastic leukemia

D. acute myeloid leukemia from chronic myelogenous leukemia

acute myeloid leukemia from acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A patient has a platelet count of 1200 x 109/L. Many platelets are giant and have abnormal shaped. A mild anemia is present. The bone marrow has increased megakaryocytes in clusters; iron stores are present. Which of the following is most likely?

A. chronic myelogenous leukemia

B. polycythemia vera

C. thrombosis secondary to blood loss

D. Essential thrombocythemia

Essential thrombocythemia

Which of the following chromosome abnormalities is associated with CML?

A. t(8;14)

B. trisomy 18

C. t(15;17)

D. t(9;22)

t(9;22)

The most common "useless" immunoglobulin produced in multiple myeloma is:

A. IgG

B. IgA

C. IgM

D. IgD

IgG

The M-spike in Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia is evident in what region of the electrophoretogram?

A. Alpha 2

B. Beta-Gamma

C. albumin

D. Alpha 1

Beta-Gamma

All of the following are minor criteria for Overt PMF, except:

A. WBC count <10 x 10(9)/L

B. palpable splenomegaly

C. Leukoerythroblastosis

D. Leukocytosis ≥11 x 10(9)/L

WBC count <10 x 10(9)/L

What does the "M-spike" refer to in Multiple Myeloma?

A. Monocytes

B. Macrophages

C. Monoclonal protein

D. Macrocytic

Monoclonal protein

What is the treatment for Polycythemia Vera (PV)?

A. therapeutic phlebotomy

B. all answers are correct

C. Ruxolitinib (inhibitor of JAK2)

D. Hydroxyurea

all answers are correct

Hematopoietic Stem Cell transplantation is accepted as a cure for MDS

A. True

B. False

True

Which of the following is increased in Multiple Myeloma?

A. serum calcium

B. osteoblasts

C. osteoprotegerin

D. MCV

serum calcium

In which chronic myeloid proliferative disorder is the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score decreased?

A. PV

B. CML

C. ET

D. PMF

CML

A patient has a platelet count of 700 x 109/L with abnormalities in size, shape, and granularity of platelets; a WBC count of 12 x 109/L; and hgb of 11 g/dL. The Philadelphia chromosome is not present. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. PV

B. ET

C. Leukemoid reaction

D. CML

ET

Which of the following is typical in the peripheral blood in patients with myelodysplastic syndrome?

A. hypogranular or agranular neutrophils

B. low levels of folate

C. lymphocytosis

D. plasma cells

hypogranular or agranular neutrophils

All of the following are included in the chronic myeloproliferative disorders, except:

A. polycythemia vera

B. acute myeloid leukemia

C. chronic myelogenous leukemia

D. essential thrombocythemia

acute myeloid leukemia

All of the following are clinical features associated with Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, except:

A. Hyperviscosity

B. Raynaud's phenomena

C. Amyloidosis

D. Hypoviscosity

Hypoviscosity

A 47-yr old man has gingival hypertrophy and a white cell count of 108 x 109/L. He has a moderate anemia and is thrombocytopenic. The differential consists primarily of a combination of mature monocytes, promonocytes, and CD14 positive blasts. Which of the following forms of leukemia is most likely?

A. acute myeloid leukemia with t(15;17)(q22;q12)

B. acute myeloid leukemia with maturation

C. acute monoblastic leukemia

D. acute myeloid leukemia with minimal differentiation

acute monoblastic leukemia

The bone marrow fibrosis observed in primary myelofibrosis is due to

A. malignant proliferation of fibroblasts

B. decreased apoptosis of normal fibroblasts

C. increased production of collagen

D. increased erythropoietin, which stimulates fibroblast proliferation

increased production of collagen

MDS with isolate 5q- has no dysplastic lineages and no evidence of any cytopenias.

A. False

B. True

False

What is a possible treatment for Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia?

A. all trans retinoid acid

B. plasmapheresis

C. Gleevec

D. desferroxamine

plasmapheresis

Which of the following would stain most strongly for myeloperoxidase?

A. lymphoblasts

B. Auer rods

C. normal myeloblasts

D. monocytes

Auer rods

Which of the following is a criteria for accelerated phase of CML, according to WHO?

A. platelet count >900 x 10(9)/L

B. RBC count decreased

C. WBC >9 x 10(9)/L

D. persistent or increasing splenomegaly, unresponsive to therapy

persistent or increasing splenomegaly, unresponsive to therapy

The most common cytogenetic abnormality seen in Burkitt's Lymphoma is:

A. t(8;14)

B. trisomy 21

C. t(9;22)

D. t(15;17)

t(8;14)

The term "punched-out bone lesions" affecting some Multiple Myeloma patients typically refers to bone lesions affecting the:

A. carpal bones

B. metacarpal bones

C. skull

D. phalanges

skull

Which of the following is a common feature of the myelodysplastic syndromes?

A. progressive cytopenias and dyspoiesis in one or more cell lines

B. low mean cell volume and thrombocytopenia

C. peripheral blasts between 5% and 20%

D. macrocytic red cell volume and thrombocytopenia

progressive cytopenias and dyspoiesis in one or more cell lines

A high red cell count, high hemoglobin, and high hematocrit are found in all of the following except:

A. erythrocytosis secondary to hypoxia

B. dehyration

C. polycythemia vera

D. bone marrow aplasia

bone marrow aplasia

The Philadelphia chromosome

A. is diagnostic for polycythemia vera

B. manifests as a tyrosine kinase that blocks cell maturation

C. results in a chimeric gene (bcr/abl)

D. is a balanced reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 7 and 19

results in a chimeric gene (bcr/abl)

A Lymph node biopsy is needed in the diagnostic work up for patients suspected of lymphoproliferative disease

A. False

B. True

True

A 26-yr old male presents to the emergency room with a history of fatigue, fever, and gingival bleeding for the past 3 days. The patient's WBC is 17,000/µL, Hgb 9.4 g/dL, PLTs 72,000/µL. The WBC differential showed 19% lymphocytes, 15% monocytes, 6% eosinophils, 60% other cells which were heavily granulated and contained Auer Rods. A FISH analysis revealed a t(15;17) translocation.The patient was treated with retinoid acid. These results are treatment option are consistent with:

A. Acute Promyelocytic leukemia

B. Chronic Myelomonocytic Leukemia

C. Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia

D. Essential Thrombocythemia

Acute Promyelocytic leukemia

Chronic myelogenous leukemia often transitions into

A. chronic neutrophilic leukemia

B. essential thrombocythemia

C. acute myeloid leukemia

D. primary myelofibrosis

acute myeloid leukemia

Which chronic myeloproliferative disorder is treated with imatinib mesylate (Gleevec), a drug that inhibits tyrosine kinase?

A. primary myelofibrosis

B. chronic myelogenous leukemia

C. polycythemia vera

D. essential thrombocythemia

chronic myelogenous leukemia

In this leukemia, cancerous plasma cells make up more than 20% of total WBC in the peripheral blood and the absolute plasma cell count is >2 x 10(9)/L.

A. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia

B. Hodgkins lymphoma

C. Primary Myelofibrosis

D. Plasma Cell Leukemia

Plasma Cell Leukemia

This leukemia of B cell origin is associated with TRAP (tartrate resistant acid phosphatase)

A. Myelomonocytic leukemia

B. Burkitt's lymphoma

C. Monoblastic leukemia

D. Hairy cell leukemia

Hairy cell leukemia

What is the most common leukemia in children between the ages of 2 and 5 years?

A. acute monocytic

B. acute myeloid

C. acute lymphoblastic

D. acute myelomonocytic

acute lymphoblastic

All of the following comprise The WHO Classification of Myeloid Leukemias, except:

A. Therapy-related Myeloid Neoplasms

B. Dendritic Myeloid Leukemia

C. AML with Recurrent Genetic Abnormalities

D. Myeloid Proliferation related to Down Syndrome

Dendritic Myeloid Leukemia

Which form of acute myeloid leukemia is most often associated with DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)?

A. acute myeloid leukemia with maturation

B. acute myeloid leukemia with t(15;17)(q22;q12)

C. acute myeloid leukemia with t(8;21)(q33;q22)

D. acute myeloid leukemia minimally differentiated

acute myeloid leukemia with t(15;17)(q22;q12)

In this type of MDS, per WHO classification, 10-19% of blasts are found in the bone marrow and Auer rods are present.

A. MDS with isolate 5q-

B. EB-1

C. SLD

D. EB-2

EB-2

A finding of ≥15% ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow and one dysplastic lineage aligns with this type of MDS per WHO classification:

A. RS-SLD

B. MLD

C. MDS-U refractory cytopenia of childhood

D. SLD

RS-SLD

A 55-yr old male presents with symptoms of fatigue. His hemoglobin is 10.6 g/dL, MCV is 92 fL. His serum ferritin, vitamin B12, and folic acid levels are normal. Absolute neutrophil count is 1.3 x 10(9)/L, calcium is 9.2 mg/dL, albumin is 3.8 g/dL. A serum protein electrophoresis reveals a monoclonal IgA protein of 1.5 g/dL. A skeletal survey shows 30% involvement by abnormal appearing plasma cells. These results are consistent with:

A. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

B. Multiple Myeloma

C. Polycythemia Vera

D. Plasma cell leukemia

Multiple Myeloma

Nieman-Pick disease is caused by a deficiency of:

A. ∂-Galactosidase

B. sphingomyelinase

C. ß-Glucocerebrosidase

D. Hexosaminidase A

sphingomyelinase

Secondary cold-reactive autoimmune hemolytic anemia is found most often in patients with:

A. hereditary spherocytosis or hereditary elliptocytosis

B. Mycoplasma pneumonia or infectious mononucleosis or other virus

C. acute myeloid leukemia and chronic myelogenous leukemia

D. hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn caused by Anti-A or anti-D

Mycoplasma pneumonia or infectious mononucleosis or other virus

Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait?

A. Hgb A 0%, Hgb A2 5%, Hgb F 95%

B. Hgb A 40%, Hgb S 35%, Hgb F 5%

C. Hgb A 80%, Hgb S 10%, Hgb A2 10%

D. Hgb A 60%, Hgb S 40%, Hgb A2 2%

Hgb A 60%, Hgb S 40%, Hgb A2 2%

Erythroid precursors are characterized by the expression of:

A. CD61

B. CD71

C. CD20

D. CD3

CD71

Which of the following would be an unexpected finding in homozygous beta 0 thalassemia?

A. severe anemia

B. bone marrow erythroid hyperplasia

C. target cells

D. normal Hb F

normal Hb F

Which of the following is true of flow cytometric gating?

A. allows for convergence of two subpopulations from a heterogenous population to optimize analysis in single parameter experiments

B. procures separation around negative control data

C. procures separation around positive control data

D. procures separation of a subpopulation from a heterogenous population to optimize analysis in multi parameter experiments

procures separation of a subpopulation from a heterogenous population to optimize analysis in multi parameter experiments

What is the major hemoglobin found in red cells of patients with sickle cell trait?

A. Hgb A2

B. hgb S

C. Hgb F

D. Hgb A

Hgb A

Gaucher's disease is caused by a deficiency of:

A. Hexosaminidase A

B. ß-Glucocerebrosidase

C. sphingomyelinase

D. ∂-Galactosidase

ß-Glucocerebrosidase

All of the following are associated with Type I Gaucher disease, except:

A. exhibit hepatosplenomegaly

B. affects children and adults

C. absence of skeletal abnormalities

D. absence of neurodegeneration

absence of skeletal abnormalities

All of the following improve the clinical outcome of sickle cell anemia (HbSS) except which of the following?

A. aggressive prevention and treatment of infection

B. keeping oxygen saturation low

C. transfusions during crises

D. presence of Hgb F

keeping oxygen saturation low

Which of the following is characteristic of Hgb H?

A. Howell Jolly bodies

B. "golf ball" like inclusions

C. Bar of gold crystals

D. glove shaped red cells

"golf ball" like inclusions

This condition of sickle cell anemia is characterized by fever, chest pain, and presence of pulmonary infiltrates on the chest radiograph and is the leading cause of death among adults with sickle cell disease.

A. hand-foot syndrome

B. avascular necrosis

C. septicemia

D. Acute chest syndrome

Acute chest syndrome

What is the only curative therapy for Thalassemia major?

A. hydroxyurea

B. hypertransfusion program

C. hematopoietic stem cell transplant

D. ß globin gene transfer

hematopoietic stem cell transplant

Which of the following Hgb A2 levels is associated with Thalassemia Minor?

A. Hgb A2 is 5%

B. Hgb A2 is 20%

C. Hgb A2 is 1%

D. Hgb A2 is not detectable

Hgb A2 is 5%

What would you expect the MCV to be in a patient with sickle cell disease?

A. normal

B. increased

C. decreased

normal

Forward scatter is related to what cellular feature?

A. complexity

B. granularity

C. size

D. density

size

What does the designation ß+ refer to in Thalassemia?

A. beta globin gene mutation that results in 30 to 50% decrease in beta chain production

B.beta globin gene mutation which results in 50 to 75% decrease in beta chain production

C. beta gene mutation in which no beta chains are produced

D. a beta globin gene mutation which results in 5 to 30% decrease in beta chain production

a beta globin gene mutation which results in 5 to 30% decrease in beta chain production

Hb Barts is composed of:

A. four zeta chains

B. four beta chains

C. four gamma chains

D. four alpha chains

four gamma chains

Which of the following designations is representative of Thalassemia Major?

A. ß+/ß

B. ß+/ß+

C. ßo/ß

D. ß/ß

ß+/ß+

Link (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.H.M. a 13 yr old African American girl, was admitted to the hospital appearing acutely ill with fever and abdominal pain. On physical exam, an enlarged spleen was evident. Lab results were as follows: Hgb 5 g/dL, Hct 15%, RBC 1.4 x 1012/L, WBC 2.2 x 109/L, Reticulocyte count 1%, Segs 62%, bands 12%, lymphocytes 19%, Monocytes 4%, Eosinophils 2%, basophils 1%, MCV 92%, MCHC 33%, Platelet count 400 x 109/L. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at alkaline pH showed one band in the HgbS position and one band in the Hgb C position. The hemoglobins were quantified as 55% HgbS and 45% Hgb C + A2. The solubility test was also positive. These results are consistent with what disease process?

A. Hgb C disease

B. Sickle cell disease

C. Hgb SC disease

D. Hgb C trait

Hgb SC disease

Which of the following is the primary hemoglobin produced in patients with Thalassemia major?

A. Hgb A

B. Hgb D

C. Hgb C

D. Hgb F

Hgb F

What is true regarding Hgb C disease?

A. hemoglobin solubility test is positive

B. Hgb C is present at levels less than 90%

C. Hgb C is present at levels greater than 90%

D. cellulose acetate is more useful than citrate agar on electrophoresis

Hgb C is present at levels greater than 90%

Which of the following is a false statement regarding the alpha Thalassemias?

A. gamma chains are in excess in utero

B. beta chains are in excess in utero

C. Hgb H can form

D. Hgb Barts can form

beta chains are in excess in utero

In hemolysis mediated by IgG antibodies, which abnormal RBC morphology is typically observed on the peripheral blood film?

A. nucleated RBCs

B. macrocytes

C. spherocytes

D. RBC agglutination

spherocytes

John is a 4 yr old boy who frequently complains of weakness, fatigue, and dyspnea. The family moved to the US from Greece before his birth. Both parents experience fatigue from time to time but never consulted a physician. Lab results: WBC 11.4 x 109/L, RBC 1.7 x 1012/L, Hgb 8.3 g/dL, Hct 24%, MCV 69 fL, MCHC 28%, Platelets 172 x 109/L. Segs 55%, Bands 1%, Lymphs 36%, Monocytes 7%, Eos 1%, moderate poikilocytosis, polychromasia, target cells. Hemoglobin electrophoresis showed 66% Hgb A, 1% Hgb A2, 1% Hgb F, 8% Hgb Barts, 24% Hgb H. Serum iron was 92 µg/dL, TIBC 310 µg/dL, serum ferritin 88 ng/mL. These results are most consistent with:

A. Hereditary Persistence of Fetal Hemoglobin

(heterozygous)

B. alpha thalassemia

C. beta thalassemia

D. Hereditary Persistence of Fetal Hemoglobin

(homozygous)

alpha thalassemia

What is the basic hemoglobin defect in the thalassemias?

A. heme is producted at a lower concentration

B. iron is not incorporated into the protoporphyrin ring to form heme

C. a structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels

D. one of the globin chains has an amino acid

substitution

a structurally normal globin chain is absent or produced at lower levels

Iron overload in severe beta thalassemia (major) patients is primarily a consequence of

A. decreased rate of use of iron because smaller RBCs are produced

B. accumulation of iron from massive RBC transfusion therapy

C. a decreased need for iron because fewer RBCs are produced

D. an increased rate of absorption of iron because of the severe anemia

accumulation of iron from massive RBC transfusion therapy

The Donath-Landsteiner antibody test:

A. is run on serum and causes lysis of RBCs, which have first been incubated at 4C and then warmed to 37C, the tube is then checked for hemolysis

B. detects antigen binding to the red cell membrane at 37C only

C. is associated with lymphoma

D. detects specificity for Ii blood group antigens

is run on serum and causes lysis of RBCs, which have first been incubated at 4C and then warmed to 37C, the tube is then checked for hemolysis

Patients who are heterozygous for Hb Lepore have a clinical course

A. similar to th at of alpha thalassemia minor

B. similar to that of beta thalassemia major

C. that is completely benign

D. similar to that of beta thalassemia minor

similar to that of beta thalassemia minor

What cell type expresses CD20 and contains immunoglobin light chains on the surface but not in the cytoplasm?

A. mature B cells

B. T helper cells

C. monocytes

D. T suppressor cells

mature B cells

Cellulose acetate is performed on a patient with known homozygous HbS who has received red cell transfusions in the past week. What hemoglobins would be expected to be found?

A. Hb A and Hb F

B. Hb S, Hb A, and Hb F

C. Hb S, Hb A, Hb F, Hb A2

D. Hb S and Hb F

Hb S, Hb A, Hb F, Hb A2

Link (Links to an external site.)Links to an external site.Which of the following is true regarding the scatterplot from a flow cytometry analysis?

A. the events in the upper left quadrant are negative for CD19

B. The events in the upper left quadrant are double positive for CD19 and CD5

C. The events in the upper left quadrant are single positive for CD19

D. the events in the upper left quadrant are single positive for CD5

The events in the upper left quadrant are single positive for CD19

Which of the following is or are expected findings in beta thalassemia minor?

A. normocytic normochromic red cells

B. basophilic stippling

C. hemoglobin levels in the 4 to 6 g/dL range

D. normal levels of Hb F and A2

basophilic stippling

Which of the following hemoglobins migrate to the same position as Hgb A2 at pH 8.6?

A. Hgb C

B. Hgb H

C. Hgb F

D. Hgb S

Hgb C

What percent of offspring would be normal (Hgb AA) if mating occurred between a Sickle Trait male and Hgb C trait female?

A. 100%

B. 25%

C. 50%

D. 75%

25%

What is a biomarker for Gaucher's disease?

A. BRCA1

B. HER2

C. chitotriosidase

D. glutathione

chitotriosidase

What would you expect the MCHC to be in a patient with Thalassemia major?

A. increased

B. normal

C. decreased

decreased

In flow cytometry, side scatter provides information about:

A. cell granularity

B. cell size

C. cell viability

D. number of chromosomes

cell granularity

The most important finding in the diagnostic investigation of a suspected autoimmune hemolytic anemia is:

A. observation of hemoglobinemia in a specimen

B. recognition of a low reticulocyte count

C. detection of a low hgb and hct

D. Demonstration of IgG and/or C3d on the RBC surface by performing a DAT

Demonstration of IgG and/or C3d on the RBC surface by performing a DAT

Why are infants with beta thalassemia not presenting clinical manifestations related to beta thalassemia until approximately 6 months of age?

A. infants have less need for hemoglobin because of their small body size

B. infants are protected by their high concentration of Hgb F

C. infants have a high red count and thus higher hemoglobin from a higher than normal concentration of erythropoietin

D. infants have less need for hemoglobin because of their smaller lung capacity

infants are protected by their high concentration of Hgb F

What percent of offspring will have sickle trait when the mother has sickle trait (AS) and father is normal (AA).

A. 100%

B. 50%

C. 25%

D. 75%

50%

Hematopoietic stem cells express which of the following on their surface?

A. CD34

B. CD4

C. CD8

D. CD3

CD34

Which of the following is the primary mechanism for anemia in the thalassemias?

A. abnormal amino acid structure of a globin chain

B. erythroid hypoplasia in the bone marrow

C. impaired iron incorporation into the protoporphyrin ring

D. an imbalance in the rate of globin chain synthesis

an imbalance in the rate of globin chain synthesis

The most common clinical application of flow cytometry is:

A. detection of fetomaternal hemorrhage

B. diagnosis of platelet disorders

C. diagnosis of leukemias and lymphomas

D. differentiation of anemias

diagnosis of leukemias and lymphomas

What would you expect the MCV to be in a patient with Thalassemia major?

A. increased

B. normal

C. decreased

decreased

What would you expect the MCHC to be in a patient with sickle cell disease?

A. normal

B. increased

C. decreased

normal

Select the amino acid substitution that is responsible for sickle cell anemia

A. Glutamine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of beta chain

B. lysine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of alpha chain

C. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of beta chain

D. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of alpha chain

Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at 6th position of beta chain

Which of the following is true of patients with Hb H disease?

A. have a severe anemia

B. have excess unpaired beta chains present

C. are of Northern European ethnicity

D. contains 4 beta chains

contains 4 beta chains

Painful crisis in patients with Sickle cell disease occur as a result of:

A. vasoocclusion

B. aplasia

C. splenic sequestration

D. anemia

vasoocclusion

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is best characterized by which of the following?

A. decreased osmotic fragility

B. spherocytic red cells and positive DAT

C. decreased unconjugated bilirubin

D. increased levels of plasma C3

spherocytic red cells and positive DAT