Topic 1: Scope of Clinical Biochemistry; Quality Management

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43 Terms

1
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What are the reasons for requesting a test?

  • establish/confirm a diagnosis

  • reassure a patient

  • avoid litigation

  • monitor disease state

  • monitor therapy progress

  • population screening

2
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What type of clinical specimens can be taken?

Bodily fluids/excreta

  • saliva

  • urine

  • blood

  • CSF

  • faeces

tissue samples

  • biopsy

3
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When do most diagnostic errors occur?

80% in pre-analytical phase

4
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What are some ways to reduce sample variability?

  • patient ID checks and quality management

  • use standards to monitor performance

  • have appropriate protocols in place to handle labelling and data

  • accreditation ensures accuracy across labs

5
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What are some errors in blood sampling?

  1. technique: may lead to haemolysis

  2. stasis during venipucture: false increase of plasma content level

  3. insufficient speciment taken

  4. errors in timing: fasting vs unfasting

  5. inappropriate container

  6. inappropriate sampling site

  7. incorrect speciment storage or transport

  8. patient related factors: smoking, medications, stress

6
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Describe the types of testing errors? Random vs Systematic errors. Which type reduces precision and which reduces accuracy?

random errors

  • unknown and unpredictable source

  • normal distribution

  • reduce precision: measure of how closely measurements cluster together

systematic errors

  • opperator error or from measuring instruments

  • can show trend: alteration from standard w pattern of divergence

  • can show shift: abrupt change in measurements

  • reduce accuracy: measure of how closely measurements are to the true value of quantity being assayed

  • constant error: specific diff between test and reference methods

  • proportional error: variable diff between test and reference

7
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Explain the interpretation of a normal distribution. This distribution is what makes the ______ of a diagnostic marker?

95% of normal population have values within ± 2SD of mean

5% have values outside this range

  • may be abnormal or normal

reference range

8
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How would you effectively distinguish between a healthy and diseased population on a distribution curve

determine the diagnostic cut off value: the uncertainty range

  • draw a line where the two populations intersect

  • values in this range can be FP or FN

9
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What do the terms: Imprecision, Within assay imprecision, Day-to-day imprecision, and coefficient of variation (CoV) mean?

Imprecision = random changes that reduce agreement between replicate measurements

Within-assay Imprecision = diff between results for same speciment assayed repeatedly at the same time

Day-to-day imprecision = diff between results for same speciment assayed repeatedly at different times

Coeffecient of variation (CV) = expresses precision and should be close to zero as possible

  • CV% = (SD of assay) x 100% / mean of assay results

10
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How do you determine the total number of negatives and positives /diseased and not diseased in a population

Number (diseased)

Number (not diseased)

Total Number

Positive Result

TP

FP

Total (positive)

Negative Result

FN

TN

Total (negative)

= total diseased

= total not diseased

Total

11
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What is sensitivity a measure of? How would you calculate it?

a measure of positive results

  • measure of freq of a positive test result when a particular disease is present

  • represents the % of TP results out of TP and FN results

sensitivity% = TP / TP + FN x 100%

12
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What is specificity a measure of? How would you calculate it?

a measure of negative results

  • measure of freq of negative test results when a particular disease is absent

  • represents the % of TN results out of TN and FP results

specificity% = TN / TN + FP x 100%

13
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What is the receiver operating characteristic? What information does it give?

  • usefulness of tests expressed visually as ROC curves

  • the greater the area under = the more useful the test

14
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Briefly describe spectrophotometry? What does it measure?

  • measurement of light by a specific molecule

  • measures concentration or purity of a molecule

15
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Briefly describe atomic absorption spectrometry? What does it measure?

  • measures the absorption of light by atoms in a gaseous state

    • flame dissociates metals from chemical bonds

  • measures metal ions via flame

16
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Briefly describe nephelometry? What does it measure?

  • measures the precipitation/scattering of light from an antibody:antigen complex in solution

  • measures proteins

17
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Briefly describe ion selective electrodes? What does it measure?

  • measures the potential difference across a selective membrane - electrode only allows specific thing across

  • measures electrolytes and gases

18
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Briefly describe electrophoresis? What does it measure?

  • molecules move in an electric field based on charge, size and shape

  • migration depends on:

    • electric charge of molecule

    • size and shape of molecule

    • electric field strength

    • properties of support

    • temp

  • used to separate proteins and DNA for ID and quantification

19
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Briefly describe immunoassays? What does it measure?

  • uses antibodies to bind specific molecules/target antigens which is then detected and measured (signal intensity)

  • measures hormones, drugs, proteins etc

20
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Briefly describe high performance liquid chromatography? What does it measure?

  • separation technique that separates components in sample based on their affinity for a stationary phase and a mobile phase

  • measures drugs, hormones, etc

21
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What is the purpose of internal quality controls and what does it involve?

  • needed to minimise errors and ensure test result accuracy

  • rigorous, systematic checks on instrumentation, methodologies and processes used in daily operations

  • lab equipment calibration

22
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What is the purpose of quality control? but what does it not guarantee

  • ensures each analytical run is consistent with results from the previous internal runs

  • lab sets the QC and confirms consistency of lab results

  • but does not guarantee the correct result (i.e. if the QC set was not accurate)

23
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What are some types of analytical quality errors usually encounted?

  • data input errors: standards, calibration values

  • instrument errors: accuracy, precision

  • observer errors: reading errors, errors in equipment selection, analysis and interpretation

  • environmental errors: external factors

24
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How is uncertainty in measurement defined? What is the definitions of these terms? Repeatability, Reproducibility, Within-lab reproducibility, Between-lab reproducibility, Stability, Bias, Drift, Resolution, Standard uncertainty?

Repeatability = variation among measurements made on same object using same conditions

Reproducibility = variation among measurements made on same object using diff conditions

Within-lab reproducibility = precision within single lab over time

Between-lab reproducibility = precision between diff labs

Stability = variation among measurements made on same object using same conditions at diff time

Bias = diff between measurements average for same object and its true value

Drift = continuous and incremental change over time

Resolution = smallest change in quantity that causes detectable change in output/indication

Standard uncertainty = uncertainty expressed as SD

25
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What are some sources of uncertainty?

  • weighing

  • volume uncertainties of pipette

  • fluctuations of density

  • temp effects

  • metrological traceability

  • homogeneity of sampling material

  • matrix of sampling material

  • complex steps in preparation of sample

  • stability of measuring signal

  • calibration of device

26
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What constitutes a suitable quality control?

  • shelf-life/open vial stability

  • liquid vs lyophilised

  • medically relevant levels

  • challenge range of instrumentation

  • within-run/vial-to-vial variability

  • matrix preservatives

27
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QC material is often specially prepared plasma or serum and should be used in every batch analysis? T or F
If there are a large number of specimens, how often should a QC be used?

true

1 every 20 specimens

28
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duplicate specimen testing assesses what? and what type of errors are detected vs what is not detected?

  • assesses precision

  • detects random errors not gradual drift

29
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What are the limitations of IQC? and what is required to check IQC?

  • only detects change in performance between current and stable/OG operation

    • if OG mean is systematically wrong → cannot be detected

    • original method must establish accuracy

  • needs EQA to ensure systematic errors do not slowly increase and are undetected

30
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What do anomalies such as Outlier, Shift and Drift mean?

Outlier: QC material contamination

Shift: new QC batch component

Drift: new calibration

31
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What is the purpose of EQA and how is it organised? What is the objective?

  • external comparison of labs performance against other labs involved in similar activities

  • evaluation by outside agency of performance by a number of labs on material which is supplied specifically for the purpose

  • organised on a nation or regional basis

  • analysis is retrospective

  • objective = achieve comparability, not necessarily accuracy

32
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What are the 3 functions of EQA schemes and the outcomes?

primary = measurement

  • QA material, data collection and analysis

secondary = assessment

  • analytical standards: allowable limits

tertiary = corrective action

  • protocols for dealing with poor performance

outcomes:

  • compare lab results with peer group for:

    • accuracy, precision, linearity

  • compare methods and instruments

33
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Compare and contrast IQC vs EQA

IQC

  • monitor and minimise errors and ensure result accuracy within a lab

  • QC values set by the lab and confirms consistency of results

  • but does not guarantee correct result

EQA

  • ensures results from diff labs are comparable using same test, methodology and instrument

  • external proficiency organisation provides samples

  • independent external evaluation of labs performance

  • checks IQC and compentency of staff

34
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What are the major activities of QAP

  1. preventative

    • activities performed before examining specimen that establish systems to promote accuracy in testing

    • equipment maintenance

    • instrument calibration

    • media testing

    • staff training

  2. assessment

    • activities performed during testing to determine if systems working correctly

    • assaying standards + controls

    • maintaining control charts

  3. correction

    • activities performed to correct system after error detected

    • equipment troubleshooting

    • recalibration of instruments

35
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What are some agencies that address quality

  • Royal College of Pathologists of Australia (RCPA)

  • National Pathology Accreditation Advisory Council (NPAAC)

  • National Association of Testing Authorities (NATA)

36
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What are the functions and components of a Levey-Jennings control chart?

monitor and assess stability and correctness of lab processes over time

X axis = time or run

Y axis = measured value from QC sample

mean = horizontal lines

SD lines = control limits

37
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What is the westgard rule 12s? Do we reject or accept the run?

  • warning rule

  • violation if value lies > ± 2SD

  • inspection of QC data

    • investigate and repeat test

38
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What is the westgard rule 13s? What kind of error does it detect? Do we reject or accept the run?

  • detects random error but may be indicative of large systematic error

  • violation if value lies > ± 3SD

  • run rejection

39
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What is the westgard rule 22s? What kind of error does it detect? Do we reject or accept the run?

  • detects systematic error

  • violation if two consecutive control values from separate runs lie between 2SD and 3SD from mean in same direction

  • run rejection

40
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What is the westgard rule R4s? What kind of error does it detect? Do we reject or accept the specimen?

  • detects random error

  • violation if there is a 4SD difference between two control values within a single run

  • specimen rejection

41
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What is the westgard rule 41s? What kind of error does it detect? Do we reject or accept the run?

  • indicates bias

  • violation if there is 4 consecutive values for a single level of control greater than 1SD on the same side of mean

  • run rejection

42
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What is the westgard rule 10x? What kind of error does it detect? Do we reject or accept the run?

  • indicates bias

  • violation if there are 10 consecutive values for same level of control on the same side of mean

  • run rejection

43
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What are some good problem solving habits?

  • inspect control charts, ID rules broken and error type

  • relate type of error to possible causes

  • consider factors in common on multi-test systems

  • relate causes to recent changes

  • verify solution and document remedy

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