Final Exam

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Last updated 2:19 AM on 11/20/25
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117 Terms

1
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What is epidemiology?

Science that deals with when and where diseases occur and how they are transmitted in the human population

2
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What is communicable versus noncommunicable disease?

Communicable diseases are infectious and spread person to person, whereas noncommunicable diseases are chronic and do not transmit

3
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What are fomites?

A non-living object that help spread infections

4
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What are endemic diseases and an example?

A disease that is always present in a population within a georgraphic area; common cold

5
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What is an epidemic disease and an example?

Many people in a given area acquire a disease in a short period of time; COVID-19, HIV

6
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What is a pandemic disease and example?

Spread over the population of many continents; HIV and COVID-19

7
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What is index case?

First case of a disease

8
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What is direct transmission?

Spread between host via direct contact or droplet spread

9
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What is mechanism transmission?

Indirect transmission on the surface of a mechanical vector, like an insect

10
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What is biological transmission?

Indirect transmission via the saliva of a biological vector

11
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What is a host?

An organism that harbors the pathogen

12
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What is a pathogen?

A disease-causing microorganism which needs to come in contact with the host to cause disease

13
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What is a reservoir?

Continual source of infection or disease that can be human, animal, or non-living

14
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What is a carrier?

A person that harbors a disease but is not displaying any sign of disease

15
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What is the formula to calculate infection rate?

number of infected individuals/ population at risk

16
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What is the optimal growth range of psychrophilic bacteria?

15 degree C or below

17
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What is the optimal growth range of psychrotrophic bacteria?

20-30 degree C

18
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What is the optimal growth range of mesophilic bacteria?

25-40 degree C

19
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What is the optimal growth range of thermophilic bacteria?

45-65 degree C

20
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What is the optimal growth range of hyperthermophilic bacteria?

80 degree C or above

21
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What are examples of dry heat?

Hot oven, bunsen burner flame

22
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What are examples of moist heat?

Boiling, pasteurization, autoclaving

23
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What temperature and time are needed for pasteurization?

63 C for 30 minutes or 72 C for 15 sec

24
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What is the temp and time for boiling?

100 C for 10 min

25
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What is the radiant energy spectrum from largest wavelength to smallest?

Radiowaves, Microwaves, Infrared radiation, Visible Light, Ultraviolet, X-Rays, and Gamma Rays

26
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What damage can UV light induce and what fixes it?

Thymine dimer; photolyases

27
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What are the types of UV Light?

UVA, UVB (synthesize Vitamin D), UVC

28
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What are disinfectants?

Chemicals that lower the level of microbes on the surface of inanimate objects.

29
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What are antiseptics?

They decrease the number of microbes on living tissue

30
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What three strains of bacteria are used to do American Official Analytical Chemist Use-Dilution Test?

Samonella enterica, Staphylococcus aureus, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

31
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What are the characteristics of the genus Pseudomonas?

Gram-negative bacillus with one or more flagella, very diverse, but similarities are non-spore forming, non-coliform, catalase positive, and oxidase variable

32
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What are the characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

Oxidase-positive species with one flagellum. Typically create green colonies due to secondary metabolites, increasingly antibiotic resistant, and opportunistic pathogen

33
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What is antibiosis?

Process of one organism inhibiting another

34
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What are two methods of how antibiotics work?

Inhibition of cell wall formation (peptidoglycan) and inhibition of DNA synthesis, which prevents propagation so immune system can fight

35
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What method tests the effectiveness of antibiotics against certain bacteria?

Disk-Diffusion Method

36
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What determines if a bacterium is antibiotic resistant?

If the zone of inhibition reaches a certain diameter

37
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What type of media is a Mueller Hinton?

Enrichment

38
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What is a special feature of Mueller Hinton plate?

It contains starch, which inhibits exotoxins produced by bacteria from interfering with antibiotic disk and allows for easy diffusion of antibiotics

39
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What plate is used to do disk-diffusion method?

Mueller-Hinton Plate

40
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What is minimal inhibitory concentration?

The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial agent that inhibits the visible growth of a microorganism

41
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What bacterium is known to be mutualistic on the skin?

Propionibacterium

42
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What type of bacterium is typically a parasitic?

Transient bacterium

43
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What do normal skin microbiota need to be tolerant to?

Salt and dryness

44
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What areas are more bacteria found in on the skin?

Moist areas

45
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What are characteristics of Staphylococcus genus?

Gram positive, catalase producing, and facultative anaerobes

46
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What are the characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus?

Gram-positive microbes on skin and respiratory tract that can be pathogenic. Positive for catalase and nitrate reduction

47
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What do pathogenic Staphylococcus aureus produce?

Coagulase, which activates prothrombin into staphylothrombin, which activates fibrinogen to fibrin.

48
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What plate mimics environment created by the skin?

MSA

49
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What does MSA allow us to do?

Differentiate pathogenic and non-pathogenic species

50
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What type of enzyme breaks down mannitol in MSA plate?

Exoenzyme

51
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What genera are commonly found in the throat?

Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Neisseria, and Haemophilus (antagonism)

52
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What can you use to tell the if streptococcus is pathogen?

Hemolytic reactions

53
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What media is used to determine the pathogenicity of Streptococcus?

Sheep Blood Agar

54
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What type of media is Sheep Blood Agar?

Enrichment and differential for hemolytic capability

55
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What are the three types of hemolytic reactions?

Alpha-hydrolysis, Beta-hydrolysis, Gamma-hydrolysis

56
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What does an alpha-hydrolysis result look like and mean?

Green, cloudy around the colony due to partial destruction of RBCs caused by hydrogen peroxide produced by bacteria; typically non-pathogenic but can be pathogenic

<p>Green, cloudy around the colony due to partial destruction of RBCs caused by hydrogen peroxide produced by bacteria; typically non-pathogenic but can be pathogenic</p>
57
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What does a beta-hemolysis result look like and mean?

Clear around the colony due to the complete destruction of RBCs; pathogenic

<p>Clear around the colony due to the complete destruction of RBCs; pathogenic</p>
58
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What does a gamma-hydrolysis result look like and mean?

No visible change because the blood cells are intact; non-pathogenic

<p>No visible change because the blood cells are intact; non-pathogenic</p>
59
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What is the purpose of blood agar?

Enrichment medium because of blood and its growth factors present, and differential for types of hemolysis

60
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What are the mechanisms of blood agar?

Patterns of hemolysis are used to identify pathogenicity of Streptococci, and detects presence of exoenzyme hemolysin

61
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How is blood agar incubated?

In a candle jar to create microaerophillic environment

62
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What agar is used to select for yeast and molds?

Sabouraud Dextrose

63
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What type of media is Sabouraud Dextrose Agar?

Selective for mold, yeast, and some filamentous bacteria

64
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What is urine?

Liquid waste product produced by the kidneys, collected in the bladder, and excreted through the urethra

65
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What is urine mainly composed of?

Water

66
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What does transparent/pale yellow urine mean?

Normal

67
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What does clear, dark yellow, dark orange/brown, pink urine mean?

Overhydrated, dehydrated, jaundice, too many beets

68
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What does green, blue, or black urine mean?

Asparagus, methylene blue, melanuria

69
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What is the upper urinary tract composed of?

Kidney, ureters, and bladder

70
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What bacteria are in upper urinary tract?

Normal microbiota that tends to be gram positive

71
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What is the lower urinary tract composed of?

Urethra

72
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What bacteria is found in urethra?

Mostly gram positive, including Streptococcus, Bacteriiodes, Mycobacterium, and Neisseria

73
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What do large amount of bacteria in urine indicate?

Contamination

74
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What type of pathogen are UTI typically caused by?

Opportunistic pathogens

75
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Why are women more likely to get UTI than mean?

Women have shorter urethra and it is closer to the anus

76
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What indicates a UTI?

More than 100,000 bacteria from the same species and more than 100 coliforms

77
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How can UTIs be prevented?

Hydration, cranberries, vitamin C, probiotics

78
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Why should you close the toilet lid when you flush?

Flushing produced bioaerosols, which can contaminate other objects

79
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What are characteristics of MacConkey agar plate?

Selective for gram negative and differential for lactose fermentation

80
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What indicator does MacConkey Agar use?

Neutral red, meaning if lactose is fermented, acid is released and pH goes down and plate turns pink

81
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How does MacConkey inhibit Gram-positive growth?

It contains bile salts and crystal violet

82
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How do you read a MonConkey plate?

Growth means Gram-negative bacteria, especially enterics. No growth means gram positive. Pink means lactose fermenting, and no color change (yelllow) means non-lactose fermenting

83
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How do you calculate CFU for Mac plate?

Same formula, but DF is 0.01 since 1 loop is 10 microliters

84
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What type of bacteria are found in the large intestine?

Anaerobes and facultative anaerobes

85
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What are most gastrointestinal diseases caused by?

Ingestion of contaminated food or water

86
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What are the characteristics of Tomato Juice Agar?

Enrichment media and selective for Lactobacillus

87
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What bacteria are rich in probiotics?

Lactobacillus

88
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What are Tomato Juice Agar is incubated?

CO2 jar that creates an anaerobic environment

89
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What is TSI Slant composed of?

Phenol red, lactose, sucrose, glucose, sodium thiosulfate, and ferrous sulfate

90
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What four biochemical tests are in the TSI Slant?

  1. Carbohydrate fermentation

  2. Oxygen requirement

  3. Hydrogen sulfide production

  4. Thiosulfate as final electron acceptor (strictly anaerobic)

91
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What indicator do TSI slants use?

Phenol red

92
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What does red top and bottom yellow mean for Carbohydrate fermentation on TSI slant?

Glucose fermentation

93
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What does all yellow slant mean for TSI slant?

Glucose, lactose, and/or sucrose fermentation

94
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How do you read the results for thiosulfate as a final electron acceptor?

No gap under the agar means thiosulfate was not used as an electron acceptor and did not produce hydrogen gas, and a gap means it was

95
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What is the difference between probiotics and prebiotics?

Probiotics are supplements with live bacteria that improve the gut microbiome, whereas prebiotics are foods high in fiber with no live microorganisms

96
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What benefit does the appendix have?

It serves as a safehouse for good bacteria that can repair gut microbiome after being damaged.

97
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What bacteria is most commonly found in probiotics?

Lactobacillus

98
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What are characteristics of Type A blood?

RBCs have A antigen, and serum has anti-B antibodies

99
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What are the characteristics of Type B blood?

RBCs have B antigen, and serum has anti-A antibodies

100
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What are the characteristics of Type AB blood?

RBCs have A and B antigens, and serum has no antibodies

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