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The gonads A. are the male testes and female ovaries. B. secrete xsex hormones. C. produce gametes. D. are dormant until puberty. E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
The male homologue to the labia majora is the A. testis. B. scrotum. C. penis. D. bulbourethral gland. E. prostate gland.
B. scrotum.
Puberty is initiated when a region of the brain begins secreting A. luteinizing hormone. B. estrogen or testosterone. C. follicle-stimulating hormone. D. gonadotropin-releasing hormone. E. androgens.
D. gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
The primary target cells for GnRH are located in the
A. hypothalamus. B. gonads. C. anterior pituitary gland. D. adrenal gland. E. genitals.
C. anterior pituitary gland.
The perineum consists of an anterior
A. ischial tuberosity and a posterior anal ellipse.
B. urethral orifice and a posterior pubic crest.
C. false pelvis and a posterior true pelvis.
D. urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle.
E. pubic quadralateral and a posterior anal rhombus.
D. urogenital triangle and a posterior anal triangle.
The anterior border to the perineum is the
A. anus. B. pubic symphysis. C. ischial tuberosity. D. bulbospongiosus muscle.
B. pubic symphysis.
Human somatic cells contain only one pair of
A. chromosomes. B. autosomes. C. homologous chromosomes. D. sex chromosomes.
D. sex chromosomes.
A cell that contains 23 pairs of chromosomes is
A. polyploid. B. diploid. C. haploid. D. monoid.
B. diploid.
A child has the same number of chromosomes as each of his parents. This is because the gametes that combined when that child was conceived each contained _____ chromosomes.
A. 12 B. 23 C. 46 D. 92 E. 2
B. 23
When the process of meiosis is complete, the result is
A. two daughter cells that are diploid. B. two daughter cells that are haploid. C. four daughter cells that are diploid. D. four daughter cells that are haploid.
D. four daughter cells that are haploid.
Which choice best distinguishes between mitosis and meiosis?
A. Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.
B. Mitosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
C. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.
D. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically different from the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
C. Mitosis produces somatic cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell, whereas meiosis produces sex cells that are genetically different from the parent cell.
The process by which double-stranded, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is known as
A. crossing over, and it occurs in interphase.
B. crossing over, and it occurs in mitosis.
C. crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis.
D. interphase, and it occurs in meiosis.
E. interphase, and it occurs in mitosis.
C. crossing over, and it occurs in meiosis.
A replicated chromosome consists of two identical structures known as
A. centromeres. B. sister chromatids. C. telomeres. D. haploids. E. tetrads.
B. sister chromatids.
Interphase occurs
A. prior to meiosis. B. between meiosis I and meiosis II. C. between anaphase I and telophase I. D. between prophase I and prophase II. E. between telophase II and cytokinesis.
A. prior to meiosis.
When homologous replicated chromosomes pair up during meiosis, they form a
A. sister chromatid. B. tetrad. C. single-stranded chromosome. D. centromere.
B. tetrad.
A reduction division is one in which
A. the chemical reactions of oxidation and reduction take place.
B. the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had.
C. one daughter cell is substantially reduced in size compared to the parent cell.
D. the size of chromosomes is reduced from double-stranded to single-stranded.
B. the daughter cells receive only half as many chromosomes as the parent cell had.
Sister chromatids are pulled apart in
A. prophase I. B. anaphase I. C. interphase. D. prophase II. E. anaphase II.
E. anaphase II.
The daughter cells that result from meiosis I are
A. diploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes.
B. diploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.
C. haploid and contain single-stranded chromosomes.
D. haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.
D. haploid and contain double-stranded chromosomes.
Which cord or sheet of connective tissue attaches to the ovary at the hilum?
A. Suspensory ligament B. Ovarian ligament C. Mesovarium D. Broad ligament E. Round ligament
C. Mesovarium
Which is not correct regarding the ovaries?
A. Each ovary has an outer cortex and an inner medulla.
B. The ovaries are located lateral to the uterus.
C. The ovarian artery and vein join the ovary at its hilum.
D. The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium.
E. The tunica albuginea is deep to the germinal epithelium.
D. The gametes develop from the ovarian germinal epithelium.
Which type of ovarian follicle contains a secondary oocyte?
A. Secondary follicle B. Primary follicle C. Mature follicle D. Primordial follicle E. Polar follicle
C. Mature follicle
What structure forms from the remnants of the follicle following ovulation?
A. Corona radiata B. Zona pellucida C. Corpus albicans D. Corpus luteum E. Antrum
D. Corpus luteum
Throughout childhood, primary oocytes are arrested in
A. prophase I. B. anaphase I. C. prophase II. D. metaphase II. E. metaphase I.
A. prophase I.
The volume of the antrum is largest in a __________ follicle.
A. primary B. secondary C. primordial D. polar E. mature
E. mature
Ovulation occurs when an oocyte is released from a ruptured _____ follicle.
A. secondary B. primary C. mature D. primordial E. oogonial
C. mature
In a female infant, the ovaries contain
A. primordial oocytes within primordial follicles.
B. primary oocytes within primordial follicles.
C. primordial oocytes within secondary follicles.
D. primary oocytes within corpora lutea.
E. primordial oocytes within corpora albicans.
B. primary oocytes within primordial follicles.
A secondary oocyte arrests in
A. prophase I. B. anaphase II. C. prophase II. D. metaphase II. E. metaphase I.
D. metaphase II.
How many secondary oocytes ultimately develop from each primary oocyte?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
A. 1
What is the correct order for the phases of the ovarian cycle, beginning with day 1?
A. Luteal, follicular, ovulation B. Follicular, luteal, ovulation C. Follicular, ovulation, luteal D. Ovulation, follicular, luteal E. Ovulation, luteal, follicular
C. Follicular, ovulation, luteal
Ovulation is induced by a peak in the secretion of
A. inhibin. B. LH. C. ovulin. D. estrogen. E. progesterone.
B. LH.
Inhibin is secreted by
A. uterine lining cells, and it inhibits development of ovarian follicles.
B. follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production.
C. the anterior pituitary, and it inhibits GnRH production.
D. the posterior pituitary, and it inhibits ovulation.
E. hypothalamic cells, and it inhibits LH production.
B. follicular cells, and it inhibits FSH production.
Ovulation typically occurs on day 14 of the ovarian cycle, and the luteal phase occurs on days
A. 1-5. B. 6-14. C. 15-28. D. 8-18.
C. 15-28.
The lateral margin of the uterine tube, which bears the fimbriae, is called the
A. ampulla. B. fornix. C. isthmus. D. infundibulum. E. uterine part.
D. infundibulum.
Fimbriae
A. are extensions of the ovarian ligament.
B. line the ampulla of the uterine tube.
C. enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation.
D. are sloughed off during menstruation.
E. assist in the movement of sperm through the female reproductive tract.
C. enclose the ovary at the time of ovulation.
The normal site of fertilization is the
A. vagina. B. body of the uterus. C. fundus of the uterus. D. ampulla of the uterine tube. E. uterine part of the uterine tube.
D. ampulla of the uterine tube.
What is the correct order for the segments of the uterine tube, beginning at the ovary?
A. Infundibulum - isthmus - ampulla - uterine part
B. Uterine part - infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus
C. Ampulla - infundibulum - uterine part - isthmus
D. Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part
E. Uterine part - isthmus - ampulla - infundibulum
D. Infundibulum - ampulla - isthmus - uterine part
Although the lining of the uterine tubes contains cilia and the lining of the uterus does not, the epithelium within both organs is categorized as
A. pseudostratified columnar epithelium. B. simple columnar epithelium. C. nonkeratinized squamous epithelium. D. stratified cuboidal epithelium. E. simple cuboidal epithelium.
B. simple columnar epithelium.
Which is not a uterine function?
A. Protection and support of developing embryo
B. Usual site of fertilization
C. Site of implantation
D. Muscle contraction for labor and delivery
E. Passageway for sperm
B. Usual site of fertilization
Which does not provide structural support for the uterus?
A. Round ligament B. Transverse cervical ligament C. Uterosacral ligament D. Uterine ligament E. Urogenital diaphragm
D. Uterine ligament
The portion of the uterine wall that includes the basal layer is the
A. myometrium. B. perimetrium. C. endometrium. D. serosa. E. muscularis.
C. endometrium.
The external os is the
A. opening of the cervix into the vagina.
B. inferior portion of the central cavity.
C. bone that supports the uterus during pregnancy.
D. uterine tube attachment site.
E. primary suspensory ligament for the uterus.
A. opening of the cervix into the vagina.
The myometrium of the uterus is composed of
A. skeletal muscle. B. mucous membrane. C. fibrous connective tissue. D. loose connective tissue. E. smooth muscle.
E. smooth muscle.
What fibromuscular structure is about 10 centimeters long and serves as the birth canal?
A. Fallopian tube B. Vagina C. Uterus D. Isthmus
B. Vagina
The hymen is located
A. at the cervix. B. near the fundus of the uterus. C. at the superior end of the vagina. D. near the vaginal orifice. E. at the external urethral sphincter.
D. near the vaginal orifice.
Menarche is
A. the first four days of menstruation.
B. a female's first menstrual cycle.
C. the stage immediately preceding menopause.
D. marked by a dramatic decline in androgen secretion.
E. the final phase of the uterine cycle.
B. a female's first menstrual cycle.
Which layer of the uterine wall is sloughed off during menstruation?
A. Perimetrium B. Basal layer of endometrium C. Myometrium D. Functional layer of endometrium E. Epimetrium
D. Functional layer of endometrium
The secretory phase of the uterine cycle coincides with
A. ovulation. B. the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle. C. menstruation. D. the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle. E. proliferation.
B. the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.
What is the correct order for the phases of the uterine cycle, beginning with day 1?
A. Menstrual - proliferative - secretory B. Proliferative - secretory - menstrual C. Secretory - proliferative - menstrual D. Menstrual - secretory - proliferative E. Proliferative - menstrual - secretory
A. Menstrual - proliferative - secretory
Although the length of the menstrual cycle varies between women, menstruation consistently occurs 14 days after ovulation, and thus the _________ phase is constant in length.
A. follicular B. secretory C. proliferative D. menstrual
B. secretory
Progesterone levels are highest during the ________ phase.
A. menstrual B. proliferative C. follicular D. luteal E. ovulation
D. luteal
Which of these structures contains sebaceous glands?
A. Clitoris B. Vestibular bulb C. Mons pubis D. Labia minora E. Prepuce
D. Labia minora
Which is not part of the vulva?
A. Mons pubis B. Clitoris C. Labia majora D. Labia minora E. Vagina
E. Vagina
The secretory structures that produce milk in a lactating female are the
A. lactiferous sinuses. B. lactiferous ducts. C. alveoli. D. areolar glands. E. Bartholin glands.
C. alveoli.
The posterior pituitary hormone that is crucial for milk ejection is
A. LH. B. GnRH. C. oxytocin. D. prolactin. E. progesterone.
C. oxytocin.
During the excitement phase of the female sexual response, the uterus shifts to a more _________ position.
A. anteverted B. erect
B. erect
The function of the dartos and cremaster muscles is to
A. attach the penis to the body wall.
B. produce erections.
C. regulate the temperature of the testes.
D. help the testes descend into the scrotum prior to birth.
E. move sperm along the ductus deferens.
C. regulate the temperature of the testes.
The ridge that is visible externally along the midline of the scrotum is called the
A. septum. B. raphe. C. perineum. D. tunica albuginea. E. scrotal cord.
B. raphe.
Which of the following is a thin layer of smooth muscle just beneath the skin of the scrotum?
A. Raphe B. Cremaster C. Tunica vaginalis D. Dartos muscle E. Inguinal muscle
D. Dartos muscle
Which structure is derived from the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity?
A. Tunica vaginalis B. Perineal raphe C. Spermatic cord D. Tunica albuginea E. Mediastinum testis
A. Tunica vaginalis
Sperm are produced in the
A. rete testis. B. seminiferous tubules. C. epididymis. D. seminal vesicles. E. efferent ductules.
B. seminiferous tubules.
The interstitial cells in the testes
A. undergo mitosis to produce primary spermatocytes.
B. support and protect the developing sperm cells.
C. secrete testosterone.
D. convert fructose to glucose to nourish the sperm.
E. form the lining of the seminiferous tubules.
C. secrete testosterone.
Developing sperm cells are protected by a blood-testis barrier formed by
A. connective tissue septa. B. interstitial spaces. C. Leydig cells. D. sustentacular cells. E. leukocytes.
D. sustentacular cells.
Which is not true about spermatogenesis?
A. The process includes two meiotic divisions.
B. The final stage of the process is called spermiogenesis.
C. Mature spermatozoa are haploid (n=23).
D. Spermatogenesis begins at birth and continues throughout a man's life.
E. The process takes place in the walls of the seminiferous tubules.
D. Spermatogenesis begins at birth and continues throughout a man's life.
What part of a spermatozoon contains the nuclear material?
A. Acrosome cap B. Head C. Midpiece D. Flagellum E. Tail
B. Head
The stages that appear during spermatogenesis are
a: spermatid
b: primary spermatocyte
c: spermatogonium
d: spermatozoon
e: secondary spermatocyte
What is the correct order of appearance of these stages?
A. b, e, c, d, a
B. c, e, d, a, b
C. c, b, e, a, d
D. a, c, b, e, d
E. d, b, c, e, a
C. c, b, e, a, d
The acrosome cap contains
A. testosterone.
B. nutrients to sustain the sperm.
C. enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte.
D. mitochondria to provide energy for movement.
E. buffers to neutralize the acidity of the female reproductive tract.
C. enzymes to allow penetration into the oocyte.
How many spermatozoa ultimately develop from each primary spermatocyte?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
D. 4
In men, LH stimulates
A. hypothalamic cells to secrete GnRH.
B. interstitial cells to secrete testosterone.
C. anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH.
D. sustentacular cells to secrete testosterone.
E. spermatogenic cells to secrete ABP.
B. interstitial cells to secrete testosterone.
When comparing gamete production in males and females, males produce
A. more gametes that are larger in size. B. more gametes that are smaller in size. C. fewer gametes that are larger in size. D. fewer gametes that are smaller in size.
B. more gametes that are smaller in size.
Where are spermatozoa stored until they are fully mature?
A. Epididymis B. Rete testis C. Ductus deferens D. Seminiferous tubules E. Efferent ductules
A. Epididymis
Which structure is not found in both males and females?
A. Glans B. Corpora cavernosa C. Tunica albuginea D. Prepuce E. Vestibular gland
E. Vestibular gland
The rete testis
A. receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules.
B. is the nerve plexus that supplies the testis.
C. is a venous network that cools the arterial blood traveling to the testis.
D. transports seminal fluid to the efferent ductules.
E. is the site of spermiogenesis.
A. receives sperm from the seminiferous tubules.
The structures of the male reproductive tract are a: ductus deferens b: urethra c: epididymis d: ejaculatory duct e: ampulla
What is the order in which sperm passes through these structures from the testes to the penis?
A. a, b, c, e, d
B. c, a, e, d, b
C. a, c, e, b, d
D. c, a, b, d, e
E. d, a, c, e, b
B. c, a, e, d, b
The ejaculatory duct is formed by the
A. ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle.
B. ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland.
C. ampulla and the distal portions of the bulbourethral glands.
D. ductus deferens and the ducts of the prostate gland and bulbourethral glands.
E. ampulla and the prostatic urethra.
A. ampulla and the proximal portion of the seminal vesicle.
Which of the male accessory glands encircles the urethra?
A. Seminal vesicle B. Bulbourethral gland C. Prostate gland D. Cowper's gland E. Urethral gland
C. Prostate gland
Which gland secretes a fluid containing fructose?
A. Seminal vesicle B. Bulbourethral gland C. Vestibular gland D. Prostate gland E. Urethral gland
A. Seminal vesicle
Which of the following is not a component of seminal fluid?
A. Prostaglandin B. Citric acid C. Mucous D. Seminalplasmin E. Calcium
E. Calcium
Which of these male reproductive structures is unpaired (meaning there is only one in the body)?
A. Epididymis B. Bulbourethral gland C. Prostate gland D. Seminal vesicle E. Corpus cavernosum
C. Prostate gland
These tubuloalveolar glands produce a clear, viscous mucin that serves as a lubricant during sexual intercourse.
A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate glands C. Bulbourethral glands D. Areolar glands
C. Bulbourethral glands
Which of the following is true?
A. Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm.
B. Seminal fluid is composed of semen and sperm.
C. Sperm are composed of seminal fluid within a cell membrane.
D. The three ingredients of ejaculate are sperm, semen, and prostate-specific antigen.
A. Semen is composed of seminal fluid and sperm.
The external urethral orifice is found at the _________ of the penis.
A. bulb B. crus C. glans D. corpus cavernosum E. body
C. glans
An erection of the penis is caused by
A .semen pressure from the testes and ductus deferens.
B. muscle flexion of the penile muscles.
C. increased secretions of lymph into the spongy tissue.
D. blood filling the erectile bodies and compressing the veins.
E. ejaculatory muscles.
D. blood filling the erectile bodies and compressing the veins.
The ___________ nervous system facilitates increased blood flow to the penis by facilitating local release of __________.
A. sympathetic, nitric oxide B. sympathetic, norepinephrine C. parasympathetic, nitric oxide D. parasympathetic, norepinephrine E. somatic, acetylcholine
C. parasympathetic, nitric oxide
During orgasm, the ductus deferens undergoes
A. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder relaxes.
B. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts.
C. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter contracts.
D. segmentation, and the external urethral sphincter becomes engorged with blood.
B. peristalsis, and the internal urethral sphincter of the bladder contracts.
In males, the _________ region on the Y chromosome initiates male phenotypic development.
A. HRT B. AMH C. TDF D. SRY E. BPH
D. SRY
The expression of the ________ gene results in the production of proteins that stimulate synthesis of androgens that initiate development af a male phenotype.
A. MDF B. SRY C. GRH D. YXP
B. SRY
The appearance of the external genitalia determines an individual's
A. gender identity. B. genetic sex. C. phenotypic sex. D. genotypic sex.
C. phenotypic sex.
The changes that occur in a woman's body at menopause are due to
A. atrophy of the thermoregulatory center of the hypothalamus.
B. reduced levels of estrogen and progesterone.
C. increased production of androgens by the adrenal gland.
D. depletion of oocyte supply.
E. fluid retention that disrupts the osmotic balance of the body.
B. reduced levels of estrogen and progesterone.
When a woman in her fifth decade of life is not pregnant and has stopped having menstrual cycles for _________, she is said to be in menopause.
A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 1 year E. 18 months
D. 1 year
During menopause, the vaginal wall ________________________.
A. becomes thicker B. becomes thinner C. does not change
B. becomes thinner
Which is not considered to be a change associated with aging in males?
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Impotence
C. Decreased testosterone levels
D. Prostate enlargement
E. Termination of spermatogenesis
E. Termination of spermatogenesis
During development, the __________ ducts form the female duct system.
A. mesonephric B. paramesonephric C. metanephric D. parametanephric E. Wolffian
B. paramesonephric
What structures fuse during female development to form the uterus?
A. The superior ends of the mesonephric ducts
B. The anterior ends of the Wolffian ducts
C. The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts
D. The posterior ends of the gubernaculum
C. The caudal ends of the paramesonephric ducts
Paramesonephric ducts degenerate when the hormone ________ is present.
A. inhibin B. estrogen C. testosterone D. AMH E. TSH
D. AMH
In females, the genital tubercle forms the
A. clitoris. B. vagina. C. labia majora. D. labia minora. E. uterus.
A. clitoris.
In males, the labioscrotal swellings form the
A. scrotum. B. scrotum and testes. C. scrotum and root of the penis. D. scrotum and dorsal side of the penis. E. scrotum and ventral side of the penis.
A. scrotum.
Anti-Mullerian hormone is sectreted by
A. ovarian follicular cells. B. primary spermatocytes. C. sustentacular cells. D. interstitial cells. E. paramesonephric cells.
C. sustentacular cells.
The external genitalia do not become clearly differentiated until about week ____ of development.
A. 6 B. 12 C. 20 D. 32 E. 38
C. 20
The daughter cells that result from meiosis I are
A. diploid and contain replicated chromosomes.
B. haploid and contain single chromosomes.
C. haploid and contain replicated chromosomes.
D. diploid and contain single chromosomes.
C. haploid and contain replicated chromosomes.
