Module A Overview

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 1 person
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
full-widthPodcast
1
Card Sorting

1/101

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 8:36 PM on 2/2/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

102 Terms

1
New cards

What is the normal pH of blood?

7.35-7.45

3 multiple choice options

<p>7.35-7.45</p><p>3 multiple choice options</p>
2
New cards

causes of ABG imbalances

See photo

<p>See photo</p>
3
New cards

Some metabolic acidosis causes

- diarrhea

- diuretics

- renal insufficiencies

4
New cards

Some metabolic alkalosis causes

- severe vomiting

- gastric suctioning

5
New cards

Some respiratory acidosis causes

- pneumonia

- Acute pulmonary edema

- obstruction

- over sedation

- COPD

6
New cards

Some respiratory alkalosis causes

- anemia

- anxiety

- panic disorder

- hypoxemia

7
New cards

Pure, electrolyte-free water can never be given by IV because it rapidly enters RBCs and causes them to ____________.

rupture

8
New cards

True/False: Isotonic fluids expand the ECF volume, and 1 L of isotonic fluid expands the plasma component of ECF by 1 L

False. - 1 L of isotonic fluid expands the plasma component of ECF by only 0.25 L

1 multiple choice option

9
New cards

Normal saline solution (0.9% sodium chloride) is considered:

isotonic

3 multiple choice options

10
New cards

Hypertonic solutions draw water out of intracellular compartments, causing cellular ____________.

dehydration

11
New cards

True/False: D5W (5% dextrose in water) is unique because it may be both isotonic and hypotonic, as the glucose is rapidly metabolized once given.

True

1 multiple choice option

12
New cards

Signs and symptoms of fluid overload (circulatory overload) include:

Moist crackles in lungs and distended neck veins

3 multiple choice options

13
New cards

True/False: When an extravasation occurs, the nurse should immediately flush the IV line to push the medication into the deeper tissue.

False. - The infusion must be stopped and the provider notified promptly. Flushing is not mentioned as an initial action; specific antidotes or removal of the line may be indicated

1 multiple choice option

14
New cards

What is a reliable means of confirming IV infiltration?

Applying a tourniquet above the infusion site and observing if the drip continues

3 multiple choice options

15
New cards

A clinical disturbance characterized by a low pH due to an increased H+ concentration and a low plasma bicarbonate concentration is known as:

metabolic acidosis

3 multiple choice options

16
New cards

True/False: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis results from an excessive accumulation of acids.

False- Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis results from the direct loss of bicarbonate. Excessive accumulation of acids causes high anion gap metabolic acidosis

1 multiple choice option

17
New cards

In metabolic acidosis, the lungs compensate for the high H+ concentration through _____________ to decrease the CO2 level.

hyperventilation

18
New cards

Which of the following is a direct cause of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?

use of diuretics

3 multiple choice options

19
New cards

True/False: A normal anion gap value without potassium in the equation is 8 to 12 mEq/L.

True

1 multiple choice option

20
New cards

Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by:

High pH, low H+ concentration, high plasma bicarbonate

3 multiple choice options

21
New cards

A common cause of metabolic alkalosis is severe vomiting or gastric suction, leading to the loss of stomach _____________.

HCl (hydrogen and chloride ions)

22
New cards

Symptoms of metabolic acidosis include:

Confusion and drowsiness

3 multiple choice options

23
New cards

True/False: When metabolic acidosis is corrected and pH is normalized, potassium typically shifts back into the cells, potentially causing hypokalemia.

True

1 multiple choice option

24
New cards

The bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system is the body's major ____________ buffer system.

extracellular

2 multiple choice options

25
New cards

Respiratory acidosis is primarily caused by:

Inadequate excretion of CO2, leading to elevated plasma CO2

3 multiple choice options

26
New cards

In acute respiratory acidosis, an elevated PaCO2 greater than 60 mm Hg causes reflexive cerebrovascular ____________ and increased cerebral blood flow

vasodilation

27
New cards

Which type of renal trauma involves superficial disruption of the cortex, without involvement of the renal medulla and collecting system?

minor laceration

3 multiple choice options

28
New cards

True/False: Gunshot wounds are responsible for the majority of penetrating renal trauma cases.

true

1 multiple choice option

29
New cards

What are key nursing management points for a patient with renal trauma during the first few days after injury?

The patient must be assessed frequently for flank and abdominal pain, muscle spasm, and swelling over the flank. For surgical patients, care of the incision and ensuring adequate fluid intake are important. Instructions on changes to report to the physician (e.g., fever, hematuria, flank pain, decreasing kidney function) and guidelines for gradually increasing activity are also provided.

30
New cards

True/False: Chronic respiratory acidosis commonly occurs with pulmonary diseases such as COPD, including emphysema and chronic bronchitis.

true

1 multiple choice option

31
New cards

Clinical manifestations of acute respiratory acidosis include:

confusion and decreased level of consciousness

3 multiple choice options

32
New cards

Treatment for respiratory acidosis is directed at improving ____________.

ventilation

33
New cards

If mechanical ventilation causes too rapid a loss of CO2 in a patient with respiratory acidosis, what can occur?

Respiratory alkalosis and subsequent seizures

3 multiple choice options

34
New cards

True/False: Respiratory alkalosis is primarily caused by hypoventilation.

False. Respiratory alkalosis occurs by hyperventilation, which causes excessive loss of CO2. Hypoventilation causes CO2 retention and respiratory acidosis

1 multiple choice option

35
New cards

Clinical signs of respiratory alkalosis include lightheadedness, numbness and tingling, and ____________.

tinnitus

36
New cards

Causes of respiratory alkalosis include:

panic disorder

3 multiple choice options

37
New cards

True/False: The kidneys can compensate for acute respiratory alkalosis quickly, within hours.

False. The kidneys take days to compensate for acid-base imbalances. Therefore, in acute respiratory alkalosis, the bicarbonate level may still be normal

1 multiple choice option

38
New cards

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) is defined as:

Rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys

3 multiple choice options

39
New cards

A key diagnostic requirement for AKI is a 50% or greater increase in serum _____________ above baseline.

creatinine

40
New cards

True/False: Metabolic acidosis is a potential life-threatening metabolic complication of AKI.

True

1 multiple choice option

41
New cards

Which of the following is a nephrotoxic medication that should be assessed to prevent AKI?

Gentamicin

3 multiple choice options

42
New cards

True/False: Prevention of AKI includes providing adequate hydration to patients at risk for dehydration, such as before and after surgery.

True

1 multiple choice option

43
New cards

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is characterized by kidney damage or a decrease in the glomerular filtration rate lasting for:

3 or more months

3 multiple choice options

44
New cards

Diabetes and ____________ cause approximately 70% of cases of CKD.

hypertension

45
New cards

In early stages of CKD, there can be significant damage to the kidneys without signs or symptoms.

true

1 multiple choice option

46
New cards

A late finding in chronic glomerulonephritis is:

Peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes

3 multiple choice options

47
New cards

The metabolic acidosis of End-Stage Kidney Disease (ESKD) usually produces no symptoms, but may require sodium bicarbonate supplements or ____________ if it causes symptoms

dialysis

48
New cards

Hemodialysis (HD) is used for:

Acutely ill patients and long-term RRT for advanced CKD/ESKD

3 multiple choice options

49
New cards

True/False: Hemodialysis extracts toxic nitrogenous substances from blood and removes excess fluid.

true

1 multiple choice option

50
New cards

The preferred method of permanent vascular access for dialysis is an _____________ fistula (AVF)

arteriovenous

51
New cards

Which of the following is a common complication of hemodialysis?

hypotension during treatment

3 multiple choice options

52
New cards

In acute nephritic syndrome, the primary presenting features include:

- hematuria

- edema

- azotemia

53
New cards

The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in acutely ill patients with kidney disorders is ______, and a 1-kg weight gain is equal to 1 L of retained fluid

weight

54
New cards

Describe the clinical manifestations of advanced chronic glomerulonephritis affecting the nervous system.

Late in the disease, patients may experience peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes and neurosensory changes. They can also become confused and demonstrate a limited attention span

55
New cards

Which of the following is considered an outcome-level classification in the RIFLE system for Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?

ESKD

3 multiple choice options

56
New cards

Prerenal AKI is the result of impaired blood flow that leads to hypoperfusion of the kidney, commonly caused by

- volume depletion

- hypotension

- obstruction of renal vessels

57
New cards

True/False: The most immediate life-threatening imbalance seen in AKI, which dialysis helps correct, is hyperkalemia.

true

1 multiple choice option

58
New cards

Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CRRT) is indicated for:

Patients too unstable for traditional HD

3 multiple choice options

59
New cards

In Peritoneal Dialysis (PD), the peritoneal membrane serves as the ____________ membrane

semipermeable

60
New cards

. True/False: Peritonitis is the most common and serious complication of Peritoneal Dialysis (PD), often presenting with cloudy dialysate effluent.

true

1 multiple choice option

61
New cards

Which of the following is a goal of Peritoneal Dialysis?

Re-establish normal fluid and electrolyte balance

3 multiple choice options

62
New cards

Patients on Peritoneal Dialysis need a higher intake of ____________ than healthy adults due to protein loss.

protein

63
New cards

Which renal replacement therapy uses the patient's peritoneal membrane as the semipermeable membrane for fluid and solute exchange?

peritoneal dialysis

3 multiple choice options

64
New cards

_______ is a type of CRRT that provides continuous slow fluid removal (ultrafiltration), making its hemodynamic effects mild and better tolerated by patients with unstable conditions

Continuous Venovenous Hemofiltration (CVVH)

65
New cards

Which of the following is a high priority for nursing management of a hospitalized patient undergoing chronic hemodialysis (HD)?

Protecting the vascular access (fistula or graft).

3 multiple choice options

66
New cards

When a patient needs IV therapy, the rate of administration must be as _________ to avoid volume overload in patients with renal disease or ESKD

slow as possible

67
New cards

After kidney surgery, what is a chief potential complication due to the kidney being a highly vascular organ?

Hemorrhage and shock

3 multiple choice options

68
New cards

Which of the following is a general clinical manifestation of rheumatic diseases?

fatigue

3 multiple choice options

69
New cards

Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) have the ability to suppress the autoimmune response and alter disease ____________.

progression

70
New cards

True/False: Rheumatoid factor (RF) is present in many patients with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA), and its presence alone is sufficient for diagnosis.

False. - While present in many, its presence alone is not diagnostic, and its absence does not rule out the diagnosis

1 multiple choice option

71
New cards

A patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is experiencing significant joint pain and inflammation. The nurse understands that non-pharmacologic pain management strategies may include:

Paraffin baths and therapeutic exercises after heat application.

72
New cards

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is an inflammatory, autoimmune disorder where the body's immune system inaccurately recognizes components of the cell's nucleus as foreign, leading to:

Antigen-antibody complexes getting trapped in capillaries

3 multiple choice options

73
New cards

A common clinical manifestation of SLE affecting the skin is photosensitivity, where lesions often worsen during exacerbations and are provoked by sunlight or artificial ____________ light

ultraviolet

74
New cards

True/False: Gout is caused by hyperuricemia, an increased serum uric acid level.

true

1 multiple choice option

75
New cards

Which laboratory test is positive in more than 95% of patients with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) and indicates exceptional specificity for the condition?

Antinuclear Antibody (ANA)

76
New cards

Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by chronic fatigue, generalized muscle aching, stiffness, and sleep disturbances, with ____________ affected more than men

women

77
New cards

HIV is categorized as a retrovirus, meaning it carries its genetic material in the form of:

RNA

3 multiple choice options

78
New cards

HIV targets cells with ____________ receptors, primarily found on T lymphocytes

CD4+

79
New cards

True/False: Antibodies to HIV can typically be detected after 2-3 weeks, and these antibodies are effective in controlling the virus.

False.- While antibodies can be detected after 2-3 weeks, these antibodies are not controlling the virus

1 multiple choice option

80
New cards

Which of the following body fluids is known to transmit HIV?

seminal fluid

3 multiple choice options

81
New cards

Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is recommended for all HIV-infected patients regardless of their viral load or ____________ count.

CD4+

82
New cards

True/False: One of the goals of ART is to suppress plasma HIV viral load to undetectable levels, which helps prevent HIV transmission.

True

1 multiple choice option

83
New cards

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), a common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS, is associated with CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell counts less than:

200 cells/mm3

3 multiple choice options

84
New cards

Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for healthcare providers involves taking antiretroviral medicines as soon as possible, but no more than ____________ hours after possible HIV exposure.

72

85
New cards

True/False: The HIV-positive patient should be advised to avoid unprotected sex with another HIV-seropositive person to prevent cross-infection with different HIV strains, which can increase the severity of infection

true

1 multiple choice option

86
New cards

Which of the following is a psychosocial barrier to ART adherence?

depression

3 multiple choice options

87
New cards

A major sign or symptom of primary immune deficiency disorders (PIDDs) is:

Multiple infections despite aggressive treatment

3 multiple choice options

88
New cards

Patients with antibody deficiency disorders are contraindicated from receiving _______ because they are incapable of generating antibodies and the live substance could cause disease

live vaccines

89
New cards

Describe the modes of transmission of human immune deficiency virus infection.

All of these are correct

3 multiple choice options

90
New cards

True/False: Consistent and correct use of nonlatex condoms made of natural materials like lambskin effectively prevents the sexual transmission of HIV.

False

1 multiple choice option

91
New cards

For HIV-negative people who are at high risk of HIV infection, a prevention method involving taking a specific combination of HIV medicines daily is known as

Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)

92
New cards

What immediate actions should a healthcare provider take if they experience a possible occupational exposure to HIV, such as a needle stick?

- Alert their supervisor and initiate the occupational exposure reporting system.

- Determine the HIV status of the exposure source if possible

- take antiretroviral medications (Post-Exposure Prophylaxis - PEP) as soon as possible, ideally within 72 hours.

93
New cards

In the context of HIV infection stages, what is the primary characteristic of "Stage 3" that differentiates it from other stages?

A significant drop in CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count to below 200 cells/mm³, leading to an AIDS diagnosis.

94
New cards

In the context of HIV infection stages, what is the primary characteristic of "Stage 2" that differentiates it from other stages?

when CD4+ T-lymphocyte cells decrease to between 200-499 cells/mm³, previously known as the "symptomatic stage"

95
New cards

HIV is categorized as a retrovirus because it carries its genetic material in the form of:

RNA

3 multiple choice options

96
New cards

The primary goal of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in HIV treatment is to ___________, reduce HIV-associated morbidity, prolong duration and quality of life, and restore and preserve immunologic function

Suppress plasma HIV viral load

97
New cards

Describe the concept of "viral set point" in HIV infection.

- refers to the amount of virus present in the body after the initial burst of viremia subsides and antibodies can be detected.

- varies greatly between patients.

98
New cards

A nursing intervention to improve airway clearance for a patient with HIV/AIDS may include assisting the patient in attaining _____________

semi or high fowler position

99
New cards

Identify two nursing interventions aimed at decreasing a patient's sense of social isolation due to an HIV/AIDS diagnosis.

- provide accurate information about HIV transmission to correct misconceptions and alleviate anxiety.

- Encourage participation in support groups or diversional activities like reading or handcrafts

100
New cards

A hallmark of inflammatory rheumatic diseases is:

Autoimmunity, where the body mistakenly recognizes its own tissue as a foreign antigen

3 multiple choice options