RxPrep Schizophrenia & Psychosis

0.0(0)
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/149

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

150 Terms

1
New cards

schizophrenia

chronic, severe, and disabling thought disorder that occurs in ~1% of all societies regardless of class, color, religion, or culture; common symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking/behavior

2
New cards

c) hallucinations

Sensing something that's not present, such as imaginary voices

a) delusions

b) disorganized thinking/behavior

c) hallucinations

3
New cards

a) delusions

A belief about something real that's not true, such as imagining that your family (which is real) wishes to hurt you

a) delusions

b) disorganized thinking/behavior

c) hallucinations

4
New cards

b) disorganized thinking/behavior

Inability to focus attention and communicate organized thoughts

a) delusions

b) disorganized thinking/behavior

c) hallucinations

5
New cards

treatment adherence

________ for schizophrenia is important and often difficult to obtain, primarily due to lack of insight.

6
New cards

DSM-5

What sets the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia?

7
New cards

dopamine, glutamine, serotonin

What 3 neurotransmitters are primarily involved in schizophrenia?

8
New cards

extrapyramidal side effects

________ are a group of side effects related to irregular movements.

9
New cards

c. dystonias

Prolonged contraction of muscles during drug initiation, including painful muscle spasms; life-threatening if airway is compromised

a) akathisia

b) dyskinesias

c) dystonias

d) Parkinsonism

e) tardive dyskinesias

10
New cards

younger; males

(Older/Younger) (females/males) are at a higher risk for developing dystonias.

11
New cards

centrally-acting anticholinergic

What drug class can be used for prophylaxis or treatment of dystonias?

12
New cards

benztropine, diphenhydramine

What 2 centrally-acting anticholinergics can be used for prophylaxis or treatment of dystonias?

13
New cards

a) akathisia

Restlessness with anxiety and an inability to remain still

a) akathisia

b) dyskinesias

c) dystonias

d) Parkinsonism

e) tardive dyskinesias

14
New cards

benzodiazepines, propranolol

What 2 drugs/classes are used to treat akathisia?

15
New cards

d) Parkinsonism

Tremors, abnormal gait, and bradykinesia

a) akathisia

b) dyskinesias

c) dystonias

d) Parkinsonism

e) tardive dyskinesias

16
New cards

anticholinergics, propranolol

What 2 drugs/classes are used to treat Parkinsonism when tremor is the main symptom?

17
New cards

e) tardive dyskinesias

Uncontrollable movements in the tongue, face, trunk, and extremities; can interfere with walking, talking, and breathing; can be irreversible

a) akathisia

b) dyskinesias

c) dystonias

d) Parkinsonism

e) tardive dyskinesias

18
New cards

older; females

(Older/Younger) (females/males) are at a higher risk for developing tardive dyskinesias.

19
New cards

stop drug and replace w/ SGA w/ low EPS risk

What is the course of action if a patient develops tardive dyskinesia?

20
New cards

second generation antipsychotic

What does SGA stand for?

21
New cards

extrapyramidal symptoms

What does EPS stand for?

22
New cards

clozapine, quetiapine

What are 2 SGAs with low EPS risk?

23
New cards

b) dyskinesias

Abnormal movements that are more common with dopamine replacement for Parkinson disease

a) akathisia

b) dyskinesias

c) dystonias

d) Parkinsonism

e) tardive dyskinesias

24
New cards

dextromethorphan, dopamine/dopamine agonists, high dose centrally-acting anticholinergics, interferons, stimulants, systemic steroids

What are 6 prescription drugs/classes that can cause psychotic symptoms?

25
New cards

bath salts, cannabis, cocaine, LSD, methamphetamine, PCP

What are 6 illicit/recreational substances that can cause psychotic symptoms?

26
New cards

delusions, disorganized speech, hallucinations

One of what 3 positive sign/symptoms must be present to be diagnosed with schizophrenia?

27
New cards

b) apathy

Lack of emotion

a) alogia

b) apathy

c) avolition

28
New cards

alogia, apathy, avolition, social withdrawal

What are 4 common negative signs/symptoms that are diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia?

29
New cards

c) avolition

Loss of motivation

a) alogia

b) apathy

c) avolition

30
New cards

a) alogia

Lack of speech

a) alogia

b) apathy

c) avolition

31
New cards

dopamine; serotonin

Antipsychotics primarily block ________ receptors. Newer antipsychotics also block ________ and other receptors.

32
New cards

psychosis

Decreasing dopamine activity helps control ________, but negatively affects dopamine pathways involved in focus, attention, and movement.

33
New cards

positive

(Negative/Positive) symptoms are easier to treat.

34
New cards

SGA

What drug class is used first-line for the treatment of schizophrenia?

35
New cards

second

(First/Second) generation antipsychotics have a lower incidence of EPS.

36
New cards

EPS

Dystonias, dyskinesias, tardive dyskinesias, and akathisia are examples of ________.

37
New cards

poor

Adherence to antipsychotics is typically (good/poor).

38
New cards

b

Antipsychotic drug formulation that eliminated the need for daily oral tablets or capsules

a) acute IM injection

b) long-acting injection

c) oral solution/suspension

d) orally disintegrating tablet

39
New cards

d

Antipsychotic drug formulation that is useful with dysphagia and prevents cheeking

a) acute IM injection

b) long-acting injection

c) oral solution/suspension

d) orally disintegrating tablet

40
New cards

cheeking

tablet hidden inside the cheek and spit out later

41
New cards

dysphagia

difficulty swallowing

42
New cards

c

Antipsychotic drug formulation that is useful for children and people with a feeding tube

a) acute IM injection

b) long-acting injection

c) oral solution/suspension

d) orally disintegrating tablet

43
New cards

a

Antipsychotic drug formulation that provides "stat" relief to calm down an agitated, psychotic patient for their own safety and the safety of others

a) acute IM injection

b) long-acting injection

c) oral solution/suspension

d) orally disintegrating tablet

44
New cards

anticholinergics, benzodiazepines

Acute IM antipsychotics are often mixed in "cocktails" with what 2 other drug classes?

45
New cards

benzodiazepines, olanzapine

What 2 drugs/classes should not be given together in an acute IM antipsychotic "cocktail" due to risk of excessive sedation and breathing difficulty?

46
New cards

acute IM injection, long-acting injection, oral solution/suspension, orally disintegrating tablet

What are 4 antipsychotic drug formulations developed to help with adherence in schizophrenia?

47
New cards

true

True or False: Antipsychotics are not indicated for agitation control in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis.

48
New cards

mortality, stroke

Antipsychotics carry a warning for an increased risk of what 2 things in patients with dementia?

49
New cards

first-generation antipsychotic

drug class that mainly works by blocking dopamine-2 receptors with minimal serotonin receptor blockade

50
New cards

phenothiazine

Many of the FGAs are in the ________ class.

51
New cards

first-generation antipsychotics

What does FGA stand for?

52
New cards

haloperidol

What is the main FGA used in schizophrenia?

53
New cards

Haldol

What is the brand name for haloperidol?

54
New cards

c

Haloperidol is a ________ potency FGA.

a) low

b) mid

c) high

55
New cards

butyrophenone

What drug class is the FGA haloperidol in?

56
New cards

IM; monthly

What is the route of administration and frequency used for haloperidol decanoate?

57
New cards

IM; Q2W

What is the route of administration and frequency used for fluphenazine decanoate?

58
New cards

increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis

What is the main boxed warning associated with all antipsychotics?

59
New cards

QT prolongation

What is the boxed warning associated with thioridazine?

60
New cards

anticholinergic effects, CNS depression, EPS, hyperprolactinemia, NMS, orthostasis/falls, QT prolongation

What are 7 warnings associated with FGAs?

61
New cards

chlorpromazine, haloperidol, thioridazine

What 3 FGAs are most likely to cause QT prolongation?

62
New cards

increases

The incidence of EPS with FGAs (decreases/increases) when administered as an injection.

63
New cards

hyperprolactinemia

increased prolactin levels that can lead to infertility, oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea, galactorrhea, or erectile dysfunction/decreased libido

64
New cards

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

What does NMS stand for?

65
New cards

NMS

highly lethal warning mostly associated with FGAs; indicated by mental status changes, hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, and/or autonomic instability

66
New cards

anticholinergic effects,

dizziness,

EPS,

sedation

What are 4 side effects associated with FGAs?

67
New cards

increased; decreased

Lower potency FGAs have (decreased/increased) sedation and (decreased/increased) EPS.

68
New cards

decreased; increased

Higher potency FGAs have (decreased/increased) sedation and (decreased/increased) EPS.

69
New cards

SGA

drug class that blocks dopamine-2 and serotonin-2A receptors

70
New cards

aripiprazole, cariprazine

What 2 SGAs are dopamine-2 and serotonin-1A partial agonists?

71
New cards

brexpiprazole

What SGA is a dopamine-2/serotonin-1A partial agonist and serotonin-2A antagonist?

72
New cards

FGAs

Chlorpromazine, thioridazine, loxapine, perphenazine, haloperidol, fluphenazine, thiothixene, and trifluoperazine are examples of ________.

73
New cards

SGAs

Aripiprazole, clozapine, lurasidone, olanzapine, paliperidone, quetiapine, risperidone, ziprasidone, asenapine, brexpiprazole, cariprazine, iloperidone, and lumateperone are examples of ________.

74
New cards

Abilify

What is the brand name for aripiprazole?

75
New cards

Abilify Maintena

What aripiprazole brand is a monthly IM suspension?

76
New cards

Aristada

What aripiprazole brand is an IM suspension given every 4-8 weeks?

77
New cards

activation, akathisia

What are 2 side effects of aripiprazole?

78
New cards

Clozaril

What is the brand name for clozapine?

79
New cards

third

Clozapine is very effective and has decreased risk of EPS/tardive dyskinesia but is used no sooner than ________-line due to severe side effect potential.

80
New cards

a

What is the boxed warning associated with clozapine that's the reason it's in a REMS program?

a) agranulocytosis/neutropenia

b) cardiomyopathy/myocarditis

c) seizures

81
New cards

agranulocytosis/neutropenia, cardiomyopathy/myocarditis, seizures

What are 3 boxed warnings associated with clozapine?

82
New cards

12.5

Due to risk of seizure, clozapine dosing should be started at no higher than ________ mg once or twice daily, then titrated slowly using divided doses.

83
New cards

agranulocytosis,

seizures

constipation,

hypersalivation,

increased weight,

What are 5 side effects associated with clozapine?

84
New cards

≥1500

To start clozapine treatment, a patient's baseline ANC must be ________/mm3.

85
New cards

<1000

Clozapine therapy should be stopped if a patient's ANC is ________/mm3.

86
New cards

Latuda

What is the brand name for lurasidone?

87
New cards

EPS,

nausea,

metabolic syndrome,

somnolence

What are 4 side effects of lurasidone?

88
New cards

Zyprexa

What is the brand name for olanzapine?

89
New cards

Zyprexa Relprevv

What olanzapine brand is an injection suspension that lasts 2-4 weeks and has a REMS program associated with it?

90
New cards

3 hours

Zyprexa Relprevv must be administered in a registered healthcare facility where patients should be monitored for ________ post-injection.

91
New cards

delirium and sedation following injection

What is the boxed warning associated with Zyprexa Relprevv?

92
New cards

blood glucose, lipids, triglycerides, weight

Increases in what 4 things is seen with metabolic syndrome?

93
New cards

metabolic syndrome, somnolence

What are 2 side effects associated with olanzapine?

94
New cards

Invega

What is the brand name for paliperidone?

95
New cards

risperidone

Paliperidone is the active metabolite of ________.

96
New cards

Invega Sustenna

What paliperidone brand is a monthly IM injection?

97
New cards

Invega Trinza

What paliperidone brand is an IM injection given every 3 months?

98
New cards

Invega Hafyera

What paliperidone brand is an IM injection given every 6 months?

99
New cards

EPS,

increased prolactin,

metabolic syndrome

What are 3 side effects associated with paliperidone?

100
New cards

Seroquel

What is the brand name for quetiapine?