Review Quizzes: FA Dis and Mngt

What is the name of the cartilage in the roof of the mouth of the ruminant that acts with the lower incisors when grazing?

Dental Pad

Ruminants hav both upper and lower incisors?

False

If I asked you to ascult the rumen, which side of the cow would you need to be on?

Left

What side of the cow is the omasum located on

Right

What are the names of the 2 sphincters in the ruminant esophagus?

Pharyngoesophageal and cardia

What is the name of the structure in neonate ruminats that allows milk to bypass the rumen and go directly to the abomasum?

Esophageal groove

Name the three layers of the rumen in order

Gas, fiber mat, fluid

When administering a magnet to ruminants, in which compartment of the stomach will the magnet settle?

Reticulum

What is the compartment of the stomach does enzymatic digestion take place?

Abomasum

Which part of the intestine does fermentation and absorption of water, miners, and VFA take place

Large intestine

Briefly explain how to use the point of balance to move a cow

Standing behind the point of balance moves the animal forward, and standing in front of the point of balance makes the animal move backwards, therefore if needed an animal to move forward I would walk past the animals shoulder toward the rear end of the cow. If needed to move the animal backwards, I would walk past the animals shoulder toward the head

Where is the point of balance on a cow

At the animals shoulder

Explain what the flight zone is and tell how we use it to move cattle?

It is the distance that the cattle can be form the handler and feel comfortable. It will very form animal to animal and herd to herd. Moving into the cows flight zone will turn the cow away form you. The cow will turn to face you once you have moved out of the flight zone

When you are sorting cattle through a gate, what do you do to the ones that you want to hold back?

Stare at them

It is oaky to use the rope attach tot he nose tongs to tie a heifer to a post while you do a physical

False

This is a restraint method used in cattle, it works by gently pinching the vertebrae and caudal nerves. This prevents the animal from kicking or reacting to manipulations in other areas

Tail jack

This type of restraint is a good choice when milking heifers for the first time

Flank rope

We never restrain sheep by the wool

True

What is the most common form of individual restraint in swine

Hog snare

Which compartment of the ruminant stomach is responsible for grinding food particles

Omasum

Match the times to the correct period for a dairy cow

• lactation length

• Milking period

• Dry period

• Gestation length

365 days

305 days

60 days

283 days

What is the average production life of a cow in years?

4-5 years

What are the reasons that a cow would be culled from the herd

Select all the apply

Reproductive failures, mastitis, low milk yields, udder breakdowns foot/leg weakness

Match the term to the time period for the Beef cow

• production cycle

• Gestation

• Calving season

• Weaning

• Dry period

365 days

283 days

65 days

205 days

160 days

This type of cattle operation will produce bulls and replacement females

Seedstock

This type of cattle operation weans and sells calves

Cow/calf producer

This type of cattle operation buys claves from 300-700 lbs at auction and sells groups of calves to feedlots

Backgrounder/stocker operation

When talking about # of cows a bull can effectively breed..

• bulls less than 2 years can service____

• Bulls 2 years and older can service____

One cow per one month of age

30-35 cows

The signalment should always include:

Choose all that apply

Sex, age, BCS, name/number, identification, weight, breed, species, color/marking

Select the proper TPR for each species:

• cattle

• Sheep

• Swine

• Llama

Cattle: T=100-103.5, P=48-84 bpm, R=10-45 bpm

Sheep: T=102-104, P=70-90 bpm, R=20-30 bpm

Swine: T=100-102.5, P=70-90 bpm, R=10-20 bpm

Llama:= T=99-102, P=60-90 bpm, R=10-30

Please indicate the areas to palpate a pulse in a cow:

Select all the apply

Median artery, aorta/internal iliac artery, facial artery, coccygeal artery, saphenous artery

What are the landmarks that are used to ascult the lungs?

Point of the elbow, T 13 at transverse processes, caudal to the triceps

The heart is located behind the elbow at which intercostal spaces?

3rd-5th intercostal space

What are the lymph nodes that we palpate on a physical exam of a cow?

Submandibular, prescapular, prefemoral, supramammary

An ear notch is used to test for what in cattle?

BVD (bovine viral diarrhea)

Why are MLV given low in the neck?

So that gravity does not pull them into another vaccination causing them to become inactivated

Match the following:

• in dairy cattle no more than___gram negative vaccinations are given at one time

• In beef cattle, no more than___gram negative vaccinations are given at one time

2, 3

Of the food animal species, which is vaccinated the least

Goats

At what age do heifers get vaccinated for brucellosis?

4-6 months

Which of the following make up the bovine respiratory disease complex?

Bovine Viral Diarrhea virus, parainfluenza 3, infectious bovine rhinotracheitis, bovine respiratory syncytial virus

When possible we chose to give vaccines by SQ over IM in cattle

True

Why do we give vaccines on both sides of the animal instead on just one side

To stimulate different lymph nodes

Other than the jugular vein, where is another site to collect blood form a pig?

Marginal ear vein

To collect a urine sample from a cow, you will rub in an up and down motion right below her vulva. What is this area called?

Escutheon

If I asked you to prep for a Rumenocentesis, where would your landmarks be?

Caudoventral to the costochondral junction of the last rib

What is the max amount of fluid collected form a Rumenocentesis?

8 ccs

What is the normal pH of the rumen?

6.7

When collecting samples for milk cultures, it is important to discard the first 2-3 squirts of milk from the test. This is done to get an accurate representation of the bacteria that is in the udder.

True

What is the name of the test that assesses somatic cell counts to detect subclinical mastitis?

California Mastitis Test

When we are administering SQ injections, they should all be given (cranial or caudal) to the shoulder?

Cranial

Ways to check placement of an orogastric tube are: to suck on the end of the tube as it passes to check for negative pressure, to smell the rube for rumen contents, and to blow on the tube while a colleague is listening for bubbles in the rumen fluid

True

Before removing an orogastric tube, what should you do and why?

You should blow in the end to clear it of rumen contents or medication that could damage the esophagus as it is removed

It is recommended to flush catheters in food animals every:

8-12 hours

When administering an intramammary infusion, it is important to…..

Occlude the teat orifice and massage both the teat and quarter to distribute the medication, mark the animal so that the milk is not consumed, strip the udder, wash and dry the teat

Please match the following:

• when hot branding, the brand results from___

• When freeze branding, the brand results from___

• killing the hair follicle; brown in color

• Killing the pigment, producing cells in the hair follicle, white in color

When ear notching piglets, what do the notches in the right ear mean? What do the notches in the left ear mean?

The right ear is the sow number and the left ear is the piglet number

What are the reversal agents for Xylazine?

Yohimbine and Tolazine

The left flank is the preferred approach for a Caesarian section?

True

What is the name of the nerve that is blocked when dehorning?

Cornual branch of the lacrimal nerve

Mr. Jones wants his calves cosmetically dehorned. He wants to know what age they need to be to have this done. What do you tell him?

4 months old

Please match the following:

• removal of horn producing cells in calves less than 2 months of age___

• Inflection cutting out horns and horn producing tissue after they have formed from the horn bud and attaches to the skull___

• Disbudding

• Dehorning

Select the tools used in surgical methods of castration:

Emascualtor and newberry knife

This process of taking rumen contents form a donor and transferring it to a patient:

Tranfaunation

What is the difference in a rumenotomy and rumenostomy?

Rumenotomy- actually opening the rumen to remove an object/correct defect or injury then closing

Rumenostomy- creating a temporary hold in the rumen to relieve gas build up or administer fluids

What are the landmarks for a distal Paravertebral block?

The transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4

What are the landmarks for the proximal Paravertebral block?

Cranial edge of transverse processes of L1, L2, and L3 about 1 in off of m?

Which of the Paravertebral nerve blocks causes scoliosis due to unilateral muscle relaxation?

Proximal

What are the landmarks for the inverted L block?

Caudal aspect of the 13th rib and along the ventral aspect of the transverse process

What are the sites for epidural anesthesia?

Sacrococcygeal and lumbosacral

This type of nerve block is used commonly for surgical procedure of the penis?

Internal pudendal nerve block

If we are performing a Peterson or four point nerve block, what part of the body are we going to be focused on?

The eye

How long can a tourniquet applied proximal to the fetlock be left in place?

1 hour

Animals affected by Cryptosporidia parvum can only shed the organism if they are still having diarrhea. Once they have stopped having diarrhea, they can no longer shed the organism

False

Giardia causes diarrhea in all species that are affected by it

True

Which strain of salmonella is predominately associated with enteritis?

S. Typimurium

What is the word used to describe a dermatophyte that can be transmitted form animal to man

Zoophilic

Human cases of leptospirosis are often associated with exposure to what?

Contaminated water

Coxiella burnetii can be found in milk. This is a reason why it is important to pasteurize milk

True

All stains of brucellosis are zoonotic except

B. Ovis

Brucella abortus can be transmitted by contact with an infected animals (check all that apply)

Aborted fetus, milk, placenta, vaginal discharge

What is the name for the chronic, recurrent febrile illness that Brucellosis causes in people

Undulant fever (undulating fever)

What is the most common disease form of Anthrax in people?

Cutaneous

Majority of bovine lameness is in the…

The lateral claw of the hind feet

Match the following

• the corium swells within the hoof which becomes very painful; there are no obvious changed to the hoof wall or sole the foot is warm and digital pulses are prominent

• There is visible deformity of the hoof wall

Acute laminitis, chronic laminitis

What is the first clinical sign if a sole ulcer?

Sole hemorrhage

Sole abscesses are a primary condition and are not usually due to any other complication

False

Match the following:

• this condition commonly affects one or both lateral hind claws. It is caused by hemorrhage into or separation of the white line. Heavy, high-yielding dairy cattle kept under confined conditions are at a higher risk for the development of this

• This is a mild inflammatory condition of the interdigital skin. It is seen most often when cattle are housed where they are continuously exposed to moisture and manure slurries. The lesions are painful to the touch, but usually do not cause any lameness

• This is a highly contagious, erosive, and proliferative infection of the epidermis proximal to the skim-horn junction in the flexor region of the interdigital space. It can be spread by newly acquired animals, contaminated boots, or hoof trimming equipment. Lameness is seen with this

• This is the result of bacteria being sequestered in a joint. The affected joint. The affected joints are visibly swollen and warm to the touch

White line disease, Interdigital dermatitis, Digital dermatitis, Septic arthritis

What os the name of the bacteria that is involved with interdigital dermatitis?

Fusobacterium necrophorum

After a digit amputation, what is the herd retention time for that animal

Less than a year

What is the name of the guide that we use to determine which animals need to be treated for parasites? (By using it appropriately, it will decrease the rate of the development of anthelmintic resistance)

FAMACHA chart

What is the term given to a decline in the efficacy of an anthelmintic against a population of parasites that is generally susceptible to that drug

Anthelmintic resistance

What is the causative agent for foot scald/stawberry foot rot in small ruminants

Dermatophilus congolensis

Foot rot in sheep is infectious. Animal that are infected should be separated. They are treated by using foot baths with 10% zinc sulfate plus systemic antibiotics

True

What is the causative agent for foot rot in shee[

Dichelobacter nodosus