Quarter Two: Test Question Guide

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Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem:

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1

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem:

Jugular vein distention

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2

Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic bp cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should:

Obtain a manual blood pressure

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3

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

Repeating the primary assessment

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4

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:

Addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process

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5

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service?

A 61-year-old man with possible stroke ground transport of 50min

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6

Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities that may not be available at the closest hospital:

Stroke and heart attack

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7

The two processes that occur during respiration are:

Inspiration and expiration

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8

In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing based on:

Increased carbon dioxide levels

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9

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:

Increase rate and depth

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10

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is correct?

Stimulates people to breathe based on low oxygen levels

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11

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with chronic lung disease, you should:

Adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, and be prepared to assist with their ventilation

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12

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would most likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?

Shortness of breath with a bp of 76/56 (under 100)

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13

Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of:

Toxic chemical inhalation

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14

The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by:

Chronic stretching of the alveolar walls

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15

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct?

Characterized by airway swelling and hypotension

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16

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

Right atrium

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17

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?

Pulmonary veins

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18

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle:

Flows into the pulmonary arteries

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19

What is the function of the left atrium?

It receives oxygenation from the lungs

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20

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:

Sinoatrial node

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21

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period so that:

Blood returning from the body can fill the atria

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22

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called:

Automaticity

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23

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart’s primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the:

Autonomic nervous system

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24

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system:

Constriction of the blood vessels in the muscles

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25

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:

The lumen of the coronary arteries is narrowed and cannot accommodate the increased blood flow

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26

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:

Brain stem

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27

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

Cerebellum

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28

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke:

Blockage of a cerebral artery

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29

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 50 bpm. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced:

A ruptured cerebral artery

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30

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:

Hypertension

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31

An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called:

An aneurysm

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32

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?

Nasal discharge of blood

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33

A transient ischemic attack occurs when:

A small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms

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34

Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in:

Leakage of the contents into the abdominal cavity

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35

A 35-year-old obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the right shoulder. The MOST likely cause of her pain is:

Acute cholecystitis

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36

Which of the following statements regarding acute abdomen is correct:

The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized

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37

Your patient's past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this:

Diabetes

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38

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

Lie on their side with knees drawn in

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39

A 60-year-old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty, and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect

Aortic aneurysm

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40

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should:

Palpate in a clockwise direction after they indicate which quadrant is the painful one.

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41

Older patients with abdominal problems may not exhibit the same pain response as younger patients because of:

Age-related deterioration of the sensory systems

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42

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct:

Patients who miss a treatment often present with weakness

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43

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness for 2 days duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dl. If this patient is not promptly treated she will MOST likely develop:

Acidosis and dehydration

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44

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is:

Attempting to eliminate acids from the blood

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45

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:

Insulin is not readily available

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46

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively which has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. Based on this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:

Is significantly hyperglycemic

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47

A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis?

Deep and rapid breathing

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48

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing:

A heart attack

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49

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction?

Exaggerated immune system response to any substance

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50

A chemical that is responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting:

Histamines and leukotrienes

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51

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

The extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems

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52

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:

Urticaria and angioedema

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53

Urticaria is the medical term for

Hives

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54

Which of the following patients would most likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction:

A 45-year-old man who ingested penicillin

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55

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct?

Fire ants often times bite someone repeatedly

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56

Because the singer of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting:

Can continue to inject for 20 minutes

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57

The stinger from a honeybee should be:

Scraped away from the skin

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58

Most patients who die of anaphylaxis do that within __ minutes of exposure:

30 min

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59

You are assessing a young male who was stung on the leg by a scorpion. He is conscious and alert, his breathing is regular and unlabored, and his blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg. Assessment of his leg reveals a wheal surrounded by an area of redness. He states that he had a "bad reaction" the last time he was stung by a scorpion and carries his epinephrine auto-injector. You should:

Apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport him to the hospital.

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60

Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine prudence when given for an allergic reaction?

Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation

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61

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:

Wheezing and hypotension are present

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62

Substance abuse is most accurately defined as:

Misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

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63

An EMT’s primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:

Recognize a poisoning occurred

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64

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:

Tachycardia

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65

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if:

They are aware of what substance was involved

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66

Following statement about inhaled poisons correct?

Lung damage might progress after the patient is removed from the environment

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67

Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested:

Aspirin

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68

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because of it:

Binds to the substance and binds to the structure

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69

In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they:

Are usually absorbed quickly into the body

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70

Airborne substances should be diluted with:

Oxygen

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71

Signs of absorbed poison exposure include all of the following, except:

Severe nausea vomiting, and diarrhea

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72

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:

Tolerance

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73

A 78-year-old female presents with an acute change in her behavior. The patient's son tells you that his mother has type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease 6 months ago. The patient's speech is slurred and she is not alert to her surroundings. You should:

Inquire about a head injury

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74

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene before your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should:

Calmly identify yourself to the patient

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75

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should:

Be direct and clearly state your intentions

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76

A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he had attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unresponsive and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should:

Open the patient's airway and assess his respirations.

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77

A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should:

Ask the daughter how he normally behaves

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78

Each ovary produces an ovum every month and releases it into the:

Fallopian tube

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79

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall:

Becomes engorged with blood

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80

The onset of menstruation usually occurs in females who are:

12-16

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81

When a female has reached menarche:

Capable of becoming pregnant

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82

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to:

Experience abdominal cramping which can be misinterpreted

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83

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?

PID can scar the fallopian tube which increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy

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84

Pelvic inflammatory disease typically does NOT affect the:

Urinary bladder

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85

Potentially life-threatening consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease include

Ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy

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86

As a woman approaches menopause:

Her menstrual periods become irregular and vary in severity

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87

Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to PID if left untreated:

Chlamydia

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88

What is the online medical direction?

Verbal communication with medical control

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89

What is the offline medical direction?

  1. Written protocol

  2. Standing orders

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90

What are things to do when decontaminating the ambulance?

  1. Know what cleaning agents do and their requirements

  2. 10% solution of bleach and water (10% bleach), must air dry

  3. A hospital-approved disinfectant that is effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also be used

  4. Any medical waste should be put in a red biohazard bag

  5. Use the cleaning solution in a bucket or a pistol-handled spray container

  6. Do not use alcohol or aerosol products to clean the unit

  7. Any contaminated equipment that is left with the patient at the hospital should be cleaned by hospital staff or put in a red bag for transport and cleaning at the station.

    1. Chapter 2 Page 49

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91

What is one life-saving skill that everyone can do?

  1. Use an AED

  2. Perform CPR

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92

What is the difference between cover and concealment?

  1. Cover: putting something between yourself from danger

    1. Both can hide you but only cover can protect you

  2. Concealment: hiding yourself from danger

    1. Concealment does not mean that you cannot be seen

  3. According to the textbook:

    1. Cover involves the tactical use of an impenetrable barrier for protection

    2. Concealment involves hiding behind objects to limit a person’s visibility of you

    3. Chapter 2 Page 73

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93
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94

When can you legally release confidential information?

When the patient is competent and signs a release form

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95

How do we protect the patient’s privacy when speaking on the radio?

Don't use name, address, or any identifying information

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96

In the ambulance without your hands free, how do you notify the hospital that you have a patient and are on your way?

Ask the driver to notify the hospital

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97

What does CVA mean?

Cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

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98

Recumbent:

Lying horizontally (stroke position on your side)

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99

What is a TIA?

Transient ischemic attack

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100

What is AAA?

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

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