MQF (v1.2)

This is new MQF test as of 01OCT24

Observers equipped with nothing more than a map, binoculars, and compass typically have a mean target location error of what?

Observers equipped with nothing more than a map, binoculars, and compass typically have a mean target location error of what?

250m

A target identified too late, or not selected for action in time, to be included in deliberate targeting that, when detected or located, meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed using dynamic targeting. This type on target is known as what?

 A target of opportunity

a planned target upon which fires or other actions are scheduled for prosecution at a specified time is known as what?

A scheduled target

A planned target upon which fires or other actions are determined using deliberate targeting and triggered, when detected or located, using dynamic targeting is what kind of target?

An on-call target

A target, based on either time or importance, on which the delivery of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element is what type of target?

A priority target

 An immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement across defensive lines or areas is known as what?

Final Protective Fires

When planning a FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for a FPF fired with 4 tubes of 120mm Mortars?

300m / 75m

 When planning a FPF, what is the approximate length and width in meters for a FPF fired with 8 guns of 155mm Howitzers?

400m / 50m

What consists of two or more targets on which fire desired simultaneously and is designed by a letter and number combination or a nickname.

Group of Targets

A number of targets or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation is known as what type of target?

A Series of Targets

What type of target consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack?

Program of Targets

The planning and executing of fires so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons is known as what?

Fire Support Coordination

What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release or is unable to visually acquire the target.

Type 2

What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.

Type 3

Who operates and maintains the digital and voice communications equipment of the FIST or a forward observer party. As a member of the FIST or the forward observer party, he/she must be able to perform the duties of the fire support specialist in the FIST or of the forward observer.

RTO

Who is a trained Service member who can request, adjust, and control surface-to-surface fires, provide target information in support of Type 2 and 3 close air support terminal attack control, and perform autonomous terminal guidance operations

Joint Fires Observer

What field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion and selected units to plan and coordinate all available company supporting fires, including mortars, field artillery, naval surface fire support,army attack aviation, and close air support integration

Fire Support Team

Which fire support team option consolidates FISTs at the battalion level to maximize the battalion commander's ability to influence the battle at a critical time and place.

Battalion Fire Support Team

Which fire support team is the principal fire support advisor to the commander when attached to or supporting a company or troop

Company or Troop FIST

Which observer control option is used for a more experienced and highly trained FO team, allowing them to call for fire from fire support assets available to support the operation?

Decentralized

Which observer control option assigns the forward observer a particular fire support asset from which the FO may request fire support.

Designated

Which observer control options requires the forward observer to contact the FIST for each call for fire. The FIST refers the observer or relays the request to an appropriate fire support asset.

Centralized

What are the three observer control options?

Centralized, Decentralized, Designated

What are the three fire support vehicle (FSV) employment options?

Control, Observation, Independent Observer

What FSV employment option positions the FSO in the fire support vehicle to support the scheme of maneuver and to control indirect fires while remaining near the commander

Control

What FSV employment option positions the fire support vehicle to support the company or troop on terrain to maximize the use of the laser designator and rangefinder. The FSO rides in the commander’s vehicle.

Observation

Which FSV employment option maximizes assets available to the battalion or brigade commander and best allows the maneuver commander to weight the main effort.

Independent Observer

What does the acronym SLoCTOP stand for?

Security

Location

Communication

Targeting

Observation

Position Improvements

(True or False) Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O-observation ensure all team members are proficient in friendly/threat forces recognition.

True

What five components make up the terrain sketch?

 The Skyline

Intermediate Crest

Other natural terrain features

Manmade features

Labels

What is the imaginary straight line from the observer to the target. It is the most commonly used direction for locating targets and conducting adjustments

Observer Target Line

What is the imaginary straight line from gun to target

Gun Target Line

What is the distance in meters from the observer to the target expressed to the nearest thousand and in thousands referred to as?

Observer Target Factor

What are the six methods of target location?

Grid Coordinate (mensuration)

Laser Grid

Laser Polar

Grid Coordinate using Map Spot

Polar Plot

Shift From Known Point

When greater accuracy is required (for precision-guided munitions, registration points, and known points) the observer should send target locations, at a minimum, to the nearest how many meters and include altitude?

10 meters

When it is necessary to verify observer-target distance, the flash to bang technique is helpful. Sound travels at a speed of approximately how many meters per second?

350

What are the circular errors (CEs) for CAT I through VI? Answers in the form of meters or feet is a sufficient.

CAT I 0-6m or 0-20ft

CAT II 7-15m or 21-50ft

CAT III 16-30m or 51-100ft 

CAT IV 31-91m or 101-300ft 

CAT V 92-305m or 301-1000ft 

CAT VI 306m or larger (or) 1001ft or large 

What are the 6 Elements of Call for Fire?

1. Observer ID

2. Warning Order

3. Target Location

4. Target Description

5. Method of Engagement 

6. Method of Fire and Control

What are the four mission types in the CFF?

adjust fire, fire for effect, suppress, immediate suppression/immediate smoke.

What information should be included in the target description?

 What the target is

What the target is doing

Number of elements in the target

Degree of Protection

Target size and shape

What are the two forms of adjustments?

Area and precision fire

What must be included in the method of engagement when the target is (or rounds will impact) within 600 meters of any friendly troops for mortars and artillery, 750 meters for 5 inch naval guns and tomahawk land attack missile (also TLAM)

Danger Close

Which type of sheaf has each piece fire at a unique time, deflection, and quadrant elevation to cause the rounds to impact at the same point on the ground.

Converged Sheaf

What are the 14 methods of control?

1. Fire When Ready

2. At My Command

3. Cannot Observe

4. Time on Target

5. Time to Target

6. Coordinated Illum

7. Continuous Illum

8. Cease Loading

9. Check Fire

10. Continuous Fire

11. Repeat

12. Request Splash

13. Do Not Load

14. Duration

What four components are included in the message to observer?

1. Units of Fire

2. Change to Call for Fire

3. Number of Rounds

4. Target Number 

What are the 4 additional pieces of data that can be listed in the Message to Observer?

Probable Error in Range, Time of flight, Angle-T, PRF Code

What is Line 8 in the JFO Target Brief?

Nearest friendlies in cardinal and sub-cardinal heading from the target and distance of closest friendlies from the target in meters

What is the 5 Line Rotary-Wing Request

1. Observer and Warning Order

2. Friendly Location and Mark

3. Target Location

4. Target Description and Mark

5. Remarks

The FDC will transmit the term _______ after the gun(s) have been laid on the firing data but the round has not been fired. The FO will receive this command after sending a CFF as “do not load” or after establishing a priority target.

Laid

What are the 5 HOB spottings

1. Air- round bursts in air

2. Graze- round detonates on impact

3. Mixed- equal number of air/graze

4. Mixed Air-mix of air and graze, mostly air 

5. Mixed Graze- mix of air and graze, mostly graze

What are the 8 Range Spottings

1. Over

2. Short

3. Target

4. Range correct

5. Doubtful 

6. Lost 

7. Unobserved

8. Unobserved over/short

What are the 3 deviation Spottings?

Left, Right, Line

What are the 15 Subsequent Correction in order?

1. Observer target Description

2. Danger CLose

3. Trajectory

4. Method of Fire

5. Distribution

6. Projectile

7. Fuze 

8. Volume

9. Deviation

10. Range 

11. HOB

12. Target Description

13. Mission Type/ Method of Control

14. Splash

15. Repeat

What are the 4 adjustment techniques?

Successive bracketing, Hasty bracketing, one round adjustment, creeping fire

The registration point should be accurately located how many meters, near the center of the zone of fire, semi-permanent, located on fairly level terrain if possible, and on common grid with the firing unit?

10 meters

The objective of a registration is to get spottings of ____ rounds over and short along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart.

2 rounds

The objective of a registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart. If the PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters how far apart should the rounds impact?

50m

If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD or DROP ____ meters from the last data fired.

10

If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, (instead of the last round) the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD or DROP ____ meters.

20

what DA form is used for recording Registration missions

DA FORM 5429

What are the i’ve illumination patterns?

One gun illumination

two gun illumination,

two gun illumination range spread,

two gun illumination lateral spread,

four gun illumination pattern

What is the minimum range and deviation corrections for adjusting illumination?

200 meters

What are the 4 types of smoke techniques?

obscuration ,

screening,

deception,

signaling

What are the 3 targets used for Shell White Phosphorus?

Vehicles, petroleum and ammunition storage areas, threat observers

What does the acronym SALT stand for?

Size

activity

location

time

What is the max range, sustained rate of fire, and max rate of fire for the M777A2 howitzer?

22.2km

Sust. ROF: 2 rpm

Max. ROF: 4 rpm for 2 min then 2 rpm

What is the max range, sustained rate of fire, and max rate of fire for the M119 120mm Howitzer?

Max Range: 6630m

Sust. ROF: 2 rpm

Max ROF: 16 rpm for 1 min then 4 rpm for 40 min

What is the max range, sustained rate of fire, and max rate of fire for the 81mm mortar?

Max Range: 5800m

Sust ROF: 15 rpm

Max ROF: 30 rpm for 2 min

What is the max range, sustained rate of fire, and max rate of fire for the 60mm mortar?

Max Range: 3500m

Sust ROF: 20 rpm

Max ROF: 30 rpm for 4 min

what does the acronym TEFACHR stand for?

Threat

Enemy situation

Friendly Forces
Artillery

Clearance Authority

Hazards

Remarks/Restrictions

What aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs

F-16

What aircraft uses AGM-65, SDB, 2.75 inch rockets, and 30mm cannon?

A-10

what aircraft is equipped with APKWS, 30mm, 2.75-inch rockets, and Hellfires.

AH-64 (Apache)

what brevity term means sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position?

visual

what brevity term is a target, non -friendly aircraft, or enemy position

tally

what brevity term is the sighting of a specified reference point (either visual or via sensor)

contact

What brevity term is the height of friendly aircraft in thousands of feet from mean sea level (MSL).

Angels

 What brevity term Height of a FRIENDLY aircraft in hundreds of feet above ground level.

Cherubs

What brevity term means no ordnance remaining except gun or self-protection ammo?

Remington

What brevity term means no ordnance remaining?

Winchester

What brevity term means the aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT.

No joy

What brevity term means the aircraft has visual contact with the target

Tally

what brevity term means the laser designator system is inoperative

Deadeye

what brevity term means Illuminate(ing) a position with flashing IR energy.

Pulse

What brevity term means circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the FRIENDLY ground position.

Rope

What brevity term means oscillate IR Pointer in a figure eight about a target

Snake

What brevity term means to mark or marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer

Sparkle

What brevity terms means to Stop oscillation of IR pointer.

Steady

What form is the Joint Tactical Airstrike Request

DA form 1972

What are the minimum reports send in the BDA?

Successful

Unsuccessful

UnkownW

What summarizes naval gunfire support (NGFS) capability when unknown to an NGFS station?

GURF

What is a target the enemy commander requires for the successful completion of the mission?

High value target

Who is the operational to tactical level field artillery officer responsible for advising the supported commander or assisting the fire support coordinator on fires functions and fire support.

Fire Support Officer (FSO)

Action by an aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces

Close Air Support

What is activity that neutralizes, destroys, or temporarily degrades surface-based enemy air defenses by destructive and/or disruptive means

Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD)

What  is the continuous process of analyzing, allocating, integrating, synchronizing, and scheduling fires to describe how the effects of fires facilitate supported force actions

Fire Support Planning

What is the process by which the supported commander ensures that fires or their effects will have no unintended consequences on friendly units or the scheme of maneuver.

Clearance of Fires

What are the five requirements for accurate fires?

1) Accurate target location and size.

2) Accurate firing unit location.

3) Accurate weapon and ammunition information.

4) Accurate meteorological data

5) Accurate computational procedures

What  is a line beyond which conventional surface-to- surface direct fire and indirect fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing headquarters without additional coordination but does not eliminate the responsibility to coordinate the airspace required to conduct the mission

Coordinated Fire line

What is a fire support coordination measure established by the land or amphibious force commander to support common objectives within an area of operation, beyond which all fires must be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement and, short of the line, all fires must be coordinated with the establishing commander prior to engagement

Fire Support Coordination Line