Exam 3 iClickers

Septic shock can result from using antibiotics to treat?

• Gram-negative bacterial infections

• Fungal infections

• Viral infections

• Protozoan infections

Gram-negative bacterial infections

Arthropods provide a portal of exit for microbes via the?

• Skin

• Blood

• Respiratory tract

• Genitourinary tract

Blood

Which of the following is NOT a first line of defense?

• Skin

• Tears

• Saliva

• Fever

Fever

Which one of the following is classified as an agranulocyte?

• Monocyte

• Neutrophil

• Eosinophil

• Basophil

Monocyte

Which one of the following is NOT true about normal microbiota?

• They begin to be established at birth

• Physical and chemical factors affect their growth

• They are localized in specific body regions.

• They are present only for a relatively short time.

They are present only for a relatively short time.

Escherichia coli synthesizing vitamins K and B in large intestine would be an example of which type of symbiosis?

• Antagonism

• Commensalism

• Parasitism

• Mutualism

Mutualism

Diseases NOT transmitted from one host to another are called

• Communicate

• Contagious

• Nosocomial

• Noncommunicable

Noncommunicable

A patient experiences pain and discomfort. These changes in the patient’s body function are referred to as

• Signs

• Symptoms

• Syndromes

• Infections

Symptoms

What term is used to describe a disease that develops slowly and is likely to continue or recur for long periods?

• Acute

• Chronic

• Latent

• Subacute

Chronic

A disease acquired by many people in a given area in a relatively short period of time is called a

• Pandemic

• Epidemic

• Sporadic

• Endemic

Epidemic

Which one of the following is NOT a predisposing factor affecting the occurrence of disease?

• Climate

• Nationality

• Nutrition

• Preexisting illness

Nationality

A period of illness is immediately followed by a

• Period of decline

• Incubation period

• Prodromal period

• Period of convalescence

Period of decline

Which of the following diseases is NOT spread by droplet transmission?

• Malaria

• Influenza

• Pneumonia

• Pertussis

Malaria

The spread of pathogens via contaminated water is an example of __ transmission.

• Indirect contact

• Direct contact

• Vehicle

• Vector

Vehicle

Which one of the following is NOT a factor that contributes to healthcare-associated infections?

• Compromised host

• Chain of transmission in the hospital

• Normal microbiota on the patient

• Microorganisms in the hospital environment

Normal microbiota on the patient

Traditionally, healthcare-associated infections were called ___infections.

• Nosocomial

• Opportunity

• Chronic

• Emerging

Nosocomial

Which one of the following control measures is NOT used to prevent healthcare-associated infections?

• Aseptic techniques

• Frequent handwashing

• Increased use of antibiotics

• Education of staff

Increased use of antibiotics

Which one of the following would NOT be a way in which influenza is transmitted?

• Direct contact

• Indirect contact

• Droplets

• Foodborne transmission

Foodborne transmission

The easiest and most frequently traveled portal of entry for infectious microorganisms is the

• Parenteral route

• Respiratory tracts

• Gastrointestinal tract

• Skin

Respiratory tracts

The degree of pathogenicity of an organism is known as the

• Antigenicity

• Toxigenicity

• Virulence

• Cytopathic effect

Virulence

What is the preferred portal of entry for chlamydia?

• Genitourinary tract

• Gastrointestinal tracts

• Skin

• Respiratory tracts

Genitourinary tract

Communities of microbes that cling to surfaces and share available nutrients are called

• Biofilms

• Fimbriae

• Ligands

• Superantigens

Biofilms

The outer portion of Gram-negative cell walls contain

• Exotoxins

• Endotoxins

• Siderophores

• Exoenzymes

Endotoxins

Proteins secreted by pathogens that bind iron are known as

• Superantigens

• Siderophores

• Leukocidins

• Hemolysins

Siderophores

Substances produced by virus-infected cells that protect neighboring uninfected cells from infection are called

• Interferons

• Inclusion bodies

• Immunoglobulins

• Leukocidins

Interferons

Which one of the following refers to the visible effects of a viral infection?

• Lysogenic conversion

• Lysogenic effects

• Cytopathic effects

• Cytopathic conversion

Cytopathic effects

What are the granules found in the cytoplasm or nucleus of some virus-infected cells?

• Syncytia

• Endotoxins

• Lysosomes

• Inclusion bodies

Inclusion bodies

Which one of the following is NOT a way fungi cause disease?

• By using antigenic variation

• By producing toxins

• By secreting protease

• By provoking an allergic response

By using antigenic variation

What is the function of bacterial kinases?

• To coagulate fibrinogen

• To hydrolyze hyaluronic acid

• To break down fibrin

• To break down collagen

To break down fibrin

Which one of the following organisms produces saxitoxin?

• Helminth

• Alga

• Fungus

• Plant

Alga

What is the causative agent of elephantiasis?

• Entamoeba histolytica

• Candida albicans

• Cryptococcus neoformans

• Wuchereria bancrofti

Wuchereria bancrofti

Septic shock can result from using antibiotics to treat

• Gram-negative bacterial infections

• Fungal infections

• Viral infections

• Protozoan infections

Gram-negative bacterial infections

Toxins produced by some gram-negative bacteria that damage DNA are called

• Streptolysins

• Genotoxins

• A-B toxins

• Membrane-disrupting toxins

Genotoxins

Chemicals released by defensive cells that regulate intensity and duration of immune response are called?

• Antibodies

• Cytokines

• Peroxides

• Siderophores

Cytokines

Generally, antibodies recognize and interact with specific regions on the antigens called?

• PAMPs

• Haptens

• Epitopes

• Active sites

Epitopes

Plasma cells are formed after the proliferation of which type of cell?

• B cell

• T cell

• Dendritic cell

• Macrophage

B cell

T-dependent antigens are usually?

• Polysaccharides

• Lipopolysaccharides

• Proteins

• Lipids

Proteins

T-independent antigens are usually?

• Polysaccharides

• Lipopolysaccharides

• Proteins

• Lipids

Polysaccharides

Vaccination is frequently the only feasible method of controlling diseases caused by?

• Fungi

• Bacteria

• Viruses

• Protozoa

Viruses

Which of the following vaccine types more closely mimics an actual infection?

• Live attenuated vaccines

• Inactivated killed vaccines

• Subunit vaccines

• Conjugated vaccines

Live attenuated vaccines

The Salk polio vaccine is an example of a ___ vaccine?

• Inactivated killed

• Toxoid

• Live attenuated

• Conjugated

Inactivated killed

The ciliary escalator functions by moving microbes

• Toward the lower respiratory tract

• Into the esophagus

• Toward the throat

• Out of the nose

Toward the throat

The low PH of the skin is due to the protection of

• Lysozyme

• Sebum

• Perspiration

• Keratin

Sebum

The substance in perspiration that breaks down cell walls of Gram-positive bacteria is

• Cerumen

• Keratin

• Salt

• Lysozyme

Lysozyme

Which one of the following leukocyte types functions to produce toxins against helminth parasites?

• Lymphocytes

• Basophils

• Eosinophils

• Neutrophils

Eosinophils

Which one of the following is classified as an arganulocyte?

• Monocyte

• Neutrophil

• Eosinophil

• Basophil

Monocyte

Which of the following is/are NOT a second line of defense?

• Fever

• Inflammation

• Phagocytic cells

• Peristalsis

Peristalsis

The attraction of phagocytes to microorganisms is called

• Chemotaxis

• Adherence

• Opsonization

• Ingestion

Chemotaxis

Which white blood cell dominates during the initial phase of bacterial infection?

• Neutrophil

• Monocyte

• Lymphocyte

• Eosinophil

Neutrophil

Fixed macrophages that are found in the liver are called

• Alveolar macrophages

• Microglial cells

• Kupffer cells

• Peritoneal macrophages

Kupffer cells

Phagocytes contain __ that allow attachment of pathogens

• Antibodies

• Toll-like receptors

• Spikes

• PAMPs

Toll-like receptors

During ingestion, pseudopods of phagocyte fuse, surrounding the microorganism in a(n)

• Phagosome

• Granule

• Inclusion body

• Histiocyte

Phagosome

Complement proteins are numbered

• C1 to C6

• C1 to C7

• C1 to C8

• C1 to C9

C1 to C9

Interferons are produced by certain animal cells after being infected by

• Protozoa

• Bacteria

• Viruses

• Fungi

Viruses

Some bacteria evade the complement system by means of their

• Endospores

• Flagella

• Cilia

• Capsules

Capsules

How many classes of antibodies are there?

• 2

• 3

• 5

• 6

5

A typical antibody monomer has

• Two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains.

• Two different light chains and two different identical heavy chains.

• Two identical light chains and two different heavy chains.

• Two different light chains and two identical heavy chains.

Two identical light chains and two identical heavy chains.

Generally, antibodies recognize and interact with specific regions on antigens called

• PAMPs

• Haptens

• Epitopes

• Active sites

Epitopes

The class of antibody that exist as pentamer is

• IgG

• IgM

• IgA

• IgD

IgM

T-dependent antigens are usually

• Polysaccharides

• Lipopolysaccharides

• Proteins

• Lipids

Proteins

An antigenic foreign substance that has a low molecular weight is called a(n)

• Allergen

• Hapten

• Cytokine

• Immunoglobulin

Hapten

While large polysaccharides can be found in some antigens, most antigens are composed of

• DNA

• Lipids

• RNA

• Proteins

Proteins

The process by which antigens are coated with antibodies or complement proteins that enhance their phagocytosis is called

• Apoptosis

• Neutralization

• Opsonization

• Agglutination

Opsonization

The strength of the bond between an antigen and antibody is called

• Valence

• Avidity

• Titer

• Affinity

Affinity

The first antibody B cells make during primary response to an antigen is

• IgM

• IgG

• IgE

• IgA

IgM

Maturation of the T cells takes place in the

• Bone marrow

• Liver

• Thymus

• Spleen

Thymus

Which cells combat autoimmunity as their primary function?

• B cells

• T cytotoxic cells

• T helper cells

• T regulatory cells

T regulatory cells

Gateway cells in the gastrointestinal tracts where antigens are taken up and transferred to APCs are called

• Kuppfer cells

• M cells

• Dendritic cells

• Langerhans cells

M cells

When most of the population is immune, the population is said to possess __ immunity.

• Herd

• Innate

• Population

• Natural

Herd

Which blood type (s) can be received by someone who is of type A?

• A

• B

• AB and A

• A and O

A and O

Hemolytic disease of the newborn results in the destruction of which cells in a fetus?

• T cells

• Red blood cells

• Liver cells

• Kidney cells

Red blood cells

HIV is able to evade immune defenses by

• Undergoing rapid antigenic changes

• Producing a lot of antibody

• Killing the host cells

• Becoming latent

Undergoing rapid antigenic changes

The birth of modern chemotherapy is credited to the efforts of

• Alexander fleming

• Paul ehrlich

• Robert koch

• Louis pasteur

Paul ehrlich

Which one of the following antimicrobials has the broadest spectrum of activity?

• Streptomycin

• Isoniazid

• Penicillin G

• Tetracycline

Tetracycline

If one measures a large zone of inhibition in a disk-diffusion test, one can assume that the bacteria are:

• Sensitive to the antibiotic

• Resistant to the antibiotic

• Unaffected by the antibiotic

• Producing the antibiotic

Sensitive to the antibiotic

Vaccination is frequently the only feasible method of controlling diseases caused by

• Fungi

• Bacteria

• Viruses

• Protozoa

Viruses

For which of the following diseases does a vaccine currently NOT exist?

• Meningococcal meningitis

• Human papillomavirus

• Hepatitis C

• Smallpox

Hepatitis C

Which one of the following vaccine types more closely mimics an actual infection?

• Live attenuated vaccines

• Inactivated killed vaccines

• Subunit vaccines

• Conjugated vaccines

Live attenuated vaccines

Which of the following vaccines uses only the antigenic fragments of a microorganism that best stimulate an immune response?

• Nucleic acid vaccines

• Conjugated vaccines

• Subunit vaccines

• Inactivated killed vaccines

Subunit vaccines

Which one of the following has/have been added to vaccines to increase the effectiveness of antigens?

• Adjuvants

• Formalin

• Phenol

• Polysaccharides

Adjuvants

Antibody molecules that are produced by a single hybridoma clone are called

• Human antibodies

• Monoclonal antibodies

• Hybrid antibodies

• Identical antibodies

Monoclonal antibodies

Which one of the following involves the reactions of soluble antigens with IgG or IgM antibodies to form lattices?

• Precipitation reaction

• Direct agglutination

• Indirect aggregation

• Viral hemagglutination inhibition

Precipitation reaction

Immunoelectrophoresis is an essential part of

• The Western Blot Test

• ELISA

• The precipitin ring test

• The direct agglutination test

The Western Blot Test

The indirect ELISA test differs from the direct ELISA test in that indirect ELISA detects

• Antigens

• Antibodies

• Enzymes

• Toxins

Antibodies

What are absorbed to the well on the microtiter plate in the first step of a direct ELISA?

• Antibodies

• Cells

• Antigens

• Enzymes

Antibodies

A patient’s blood did NOT have any antibody titer before an illness but has significant titer while the disease is progressing. This phenomenon, which occurs in HIV infections, is called

• Variolation

• Attenuation

• Seroconversion

• Agglutination

Seroconversion

Type 1 reactions often occur how long after re-exposure to an antigen?

• 2-30min

• 30-60min

• 5-12hrs

• 24-48hrs

2-30min

Which blood type(s) can be received by someone who is of type A?

• A

• B

• AB and A

• A and O

A and O

Localized anaphylaxis is usually associated with antigens that enter via

• Injections

• Wounds

• Insect bites

• Inhalation

Inhalation

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is an example of which type of autoimmune disease?

• Cytotoxic autoimmune reaction

• Immune complex autoimmune reaction

• Cell-mediated autoimmune reaction

• Humoral-mediated autoimmune reaction

Cell-mediated autoimmune reaction

Hemolytic disease of the newborn results in the destruction of which cells in the fetus?

• T cells

• Red blood cells

• Liver cells

• Kidney cells

Red blood cells

The condition in which blood platelets are destroyed by drug-induced cytotoxic reactions is known as

• Thrombocytopenic purpura

• Agranulocytosis

• Hemolytic anemia

• Glomerulonephritis

Thrombocytopenic purpura

Cancer cells in the body being eliminated by the immune system is an example of

• Immunologic surveillance

• Immunosuppression

• Immunologic enhancement

• Immunotherapy

Immunologic surveillance

Stem cells that can generate all other types of cells are termed

• Self-tolerant

• Pluripotent

• Privileged

• Hematopoietic

Pluripotent

What type of response do the immunocompetent cells in transplanted bone marrow mount against the tissue into which they have been transplanted?

• Cell-mediated immune response

• Humoral immune response

• Hyperacute response

• Hypersensitive response

Cell-mediated immune response

HIV destroys

• All T cells

• All B and T cells

• CD8+ T cells

• CD4+ T cells

CD4+ T cells

Seroconversion for HIV can take as long as

• 7 days

• 1 month

• 3 months

• 6 months

3 months

Which one of the following is NOT an obstacle in developing an HIV vaccine?

• No model of natural immunity to mimic

• Lack of a source of virus to produce vaccine

• Lack of an inexpensive small research animal

• Danger of using attenuated viruses

Lack of a source of virus to produce vaccine

What was the first antibiotic (NOT ANTIMICROBIAL) discovered?

• Tetracycline

• Erythromycin

• Streptomycin

• Penicillin

Penicillin

More than half of our antibodies are produced by species of

• Mycobacterium

• Streptomyces

• Clostridium

• Bacillus

Streptomyces