Super Fun Final History

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126 Terms

1
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What was the purpose of the Concert of Europe?

To maintain a balance of power through collaboration and alternating alliances between European powers.

2
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How did the Crimean War (1853-1856) contribute to the collapse of the Concert of Europe?

It intensified rivalries and weakened cooperation between European powers, undermining the balance of power.

3
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Which two nations held deep animosity after the Franco-Prussian War (1870-1871)?

Germany and France.

4
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What was the main goal of Bismarck's system of alliances?

To isolate France and prevent Germany from facing a war on two fronts.

5
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How did Realpolitik influence Bismarck’s diplomatic strategies?

Realpolitik focused on pragmatic, strategic decisions, allowing Bismarck to form alliances and avoid ideological conflicts to maintain peace.

6
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What was the Entente Cordiale of 1904?

An agreement between Britain and France to resolve colonial disputes and foster closer cooperation.

7
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What led to the collapse of Bismarck’s alliance system?

Germany’s failure to renew the Reinsurance Treaty with Russia after Bismarck’s resignation in 1890.

8
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What role did Social Darwinism play in pre-World War I militarism and nationalism?

Social Darwinism justified the belief that stronger nations had the right to dominate others, fueling nationalism and militarism.

9
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How did industrial capitalism shape the political landscape before World War I?

It increased economic competition, trade, and imperialism, leading to tensions among European nations.

10
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Why did the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand trigger World War I?

Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia, which activated a system of alliances, leading to a larger conflict.

11
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What does Von Clausewitz’s famous statement, “War is the continuation of politics by other means,” mean?

War can be used as a political tool when diplomacy fails, rather than being irrational.

12
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What does the term "Total War" refer to?

The complete mobilization of society, including its economy and politics, for the war effort.

13
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What was Britain’s foreign policy of "splendid isolation"?

Britain avoided continental alliances, focusing on its empire and maintaining stability in Europe without direct involvement.

14
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How did nationalism contribute to the breakdown of diplomatic relations before World War I?

Nationalism led to rigid alliances, a sense of superiority among nations, and competition, making diplomacy difficult.

15
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What was the July Crisis of 1914, and how did it lead to World War I?

The July Crisis began after Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia, leading to the activation of alliances, escalating the conflict into a global war.

16
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What was the Triple Entente?

alliance between Britain, France, and Russia.

17
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What did the concept of the balance of power aim to achieve in pre-World War I Europe?

It aimed to prevent any one nation from becoming too powerful and dominating the continent.

18
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What internal challenges made Austria-Hungary politically fragile before World War I?

Its ethnic diversity and nationalist tensions, particularly among Slavic populations, created instability.

19
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How did militarism contribute to the outbreak of World War I?

Countries expanded their militaries, leading to arms races and increasing tensions, which made conflict more likely.

20
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What was the Entente Cordiale (1904)?

A diplomatic agreement between Britain and France to improve relations and resolve colonial disputes.

21
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What major event marked the beginning of World War I?

assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand on June 28, 1914.

22
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What is the concept of "Total War"?

Complete mobilization of all resources, society, and politics for the war effort.

23
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What major wars undermined the Concert of Europe?

The Crimean War and the unifications of Italy and Germany.

24
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What was Bismarck’s strategy to consolidate Germany’s power?

A series of alliances and treaties, including the Triple Alliance with Italy and Austria-Hungary.

25
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What ideology contributed to the rise of nationalism and militarism in Europe?

Social Darwinism.

26
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What was Britain’s foreign policy stance before World War I?

‘Splendid isolation’ focused on maintaining a stable Europe while prioritizing its empire.

27
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What was the significance of the Triple Entente?

It was an alliance between Britain, France, and Russia that countered the Triple Alliance.

28
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What was the political consequence of the Russian Revolution in 1917?

The rise of a new political structure and the Bolsheviks’ eventual takeover.

29
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How did the United States become involved in World War I?

Due to unrestricted submarine warfare and other provocations.

30
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What was the result of the Treaty of Versailles?

Imposed blame on Germany (Alleinschuld), territorial losses, and severe reparations.

31
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What internal unrest did France experience in the late 19th century?

The Dreyfus Affair, highlighting antisemitism and political divisions.

32
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How did industrial capitalism affect international relations before WWI?

It led to economic competition, protectionism, and increased nationalism.

33
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What were the military consequences of attrition warfare by 1917?

High casualties and military stalemates, contributing to political unrest in involved nations.

34
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What was the outcome of the Peace of Brest-Litovsk?

Russia exited World War I, ceding significant territory to the Central Powers.

35
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How did World War I change the geopolitical landscape of Europe?

It led to the collapse of empires (Austro-Hungarian, Ottoman, Tsarist Russia) and the rise of the USSR.

36
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What were the long-term social consequences of WWI?

Increased women's emancipation, strengthening of labor unions, and rising nationalism in colonies.

37
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How did World War I serve as a catalyst for change rather than being a direct cause?

It accelerated existing tensions and trends in politics, society, and international relations.

38
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What were Woodrow Wilson's Fourteen Points intended to achieve?

They aimed to establish a new diplomacy based on self-determination, freedom of the seas, and the founding of an international organization for peace.

39
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What was a major cause of the 1929 crisis in the U.S.?

Overproduction in industry and agriculture, leading to a supply-demand imbalance.

40
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What significant event occurred in October 1929?

The stock market crash marking the start of the Great Depression.

41
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What was the unemployment rate in the U.S. during the height of the Great Depression?

Between 25-30% in 1933.

42
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What was Franklin D. Roosevelt's famous quote during the Great Depression?

“The only thing we have to fear is fear itself.”

43
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What did the New Deal aim to address?

It aimed to provide relief, recovery, and reform to combat the effects of the Great Depression.

44
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What was the significance of the Social Security Act of 1935?

It provided a safety net for citizens, marking an increase in government intervention and the establishment of Big Labor.

45
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Who was John Maynard Keynes, and what was his key argument?

A: An economist who argued that government should intervene in times of economic distress to stimulate demand and reduce unemployment.

46
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Q: What is the "Stillborn Thesis" regarding the Weimar Republic?

A: The idea that the Weimar Republic was doomed from the start due to a lack of democratic culture in Germany.

47
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Q: What did the "Murder Thesis" suggest about the Weimar Republic?

A: It posited that democracy was undermined by political elites who restored the old order.

48
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Q: What was the "Stab-in-the-Back" legend?

A: The belief that Germany lost World War I due to betrayal by socialists and democrats rather than military defeat.

49
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Q: What were the consequences of the Versailles Treaty for Germany?

A: It imposed reparations, territorial losses, and the concept of "Alleinschuld" (exclusive blame) on Germany.

50
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Q: What was the Goldene Zwanziger (Roaring Twenties) in Germany characterized by?

A: Economic recovery, stability, and increased trust in the Weimar Republic, especially under leaders like Gustav Stresemann.

51
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Q: What role did paramilitary groups play in Weimar Germany?

A: They contributed to a violent political culture and undermined democracy through street violence and intimidation.

52
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Q: What led to the polarization of German politics by the early 1930s?

A: Growing support for extremist parties like the NSDAP (Nazi Party) and the KPD (Communist Party) amid economic crises.

53
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Q: What event on February 27, 1933, allowed Hitler to consolidate power?

A: The Reichstag Fire, which led to the enactment of the Ermächtigungsgesetz (Enabling Act).

54
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Q: What was Article 48, and why was it significant for the Weimar Republic?

A: It allowed the President to rule by decree in emergencies, which ultimately contributed to the erosion of democracy.

55
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Q: How did the Weimar Republic’s birth contribute to its challenges?

A: It faced immediate crises, including uprisings and political violence, leading to instability and eventual failure.

56
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Q: What were some causes of political corruption and fragility in Italian democracy post-WWI?

A: Political chaos, strikes, tensions between left and right, and disappointment with the Versailles Treaty.

57
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Q: What event marked Mussolini's rise to power?

A: The March on Rome (October 27-29, 1922).

58
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Q: What significant change did Mussolini implement in the electoral law in 1924?

A: Transition to a one-party state.

59
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Q: What was the Lateran Treaty (1929)?

A: A pact between Mussolini and the Pope that recognized Vatican City as an independent state and provided legitimacy to Mussolini’s regime.

60
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Q: How did Italian fascism view liberalism and individualism?

A: It rejected liberalism as it leads to individualism and believed a strong national community was essential for society's strength.

61
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Q: What was the "Leader Principle" in Italian fascism?

A: The notion that the leader (duce) embodies the unity of the community and stands for the collective goals of society.

62
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Q: What role did irredentism play in the rise of fascism in Italy?

A: It fueled feelings of victimhood after WWI, with the belief that Italy should expand to realize its "real" territory.

63
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Q: How did nationalism manifest in German National Socialism?

A: Through a focus on a collective identity (Volksgemeinschaft) and a hierarchy of people based on race.

64
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Q: What was the Night of the Long Knives (June 30, 1934)?

A: A purge by Hitler to eliminate threats within the Nazi Party, particularly the SA leadership.

65
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Q: What does 'Gleichschaltung' refer to in the context of Nazi Germany?

A: The process of consolidating control over all aspects of society, ensuring they align with Nazi ideology.

66
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Q: What was Hannah Arendt’s view on the role of ideology in totalitarianism?

A: Ideology serves as a 'scientific' framework that explains everything and is used to organize mass obedience.

67
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Q: What key elements define totalitarianism?

A: Rule by a leader-dominated mass party, reordering of social relations, a utopian ideology, and the use of propaganda and terror.

68
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Q: How did Stalin's regime exemplify totalitarianism?

A: Through extreme coercion, a brutal grip on society, forced collectivization, and widespread purges of perceived enemies.

69
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Q: What does the term 'totalitarianism' imply about the relationship between the state and society?

A: It implies that all domains of society, including economic, social, and cultural, are completely merged with the state.

70
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Q: What did Nazi foreign policy emphasize regarding the Treaty of Versailles?

A: It no longer recognized the Treaty of Versailles, viewing it as a symbol of Germany's humiliation and inability to determine its own future.

71
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Q: What was "Heim ins Reich" in the context of Nazi policy?

A: It referred to the idea of bringing all ethnic Germans back into the German empire.

72
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Q: What was the concept of "Lebensraum"?

A: It was the idea of "living space" for Germany's expansion, based on claims of overpopulation and the need to expand into the Soviet Union.

73
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Q: What did the end of Erfüllungspolitik signify?

A: It marked the rejection of the policies that aimed to fulfill the terms of the Treaty of Versailles.

74
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Q: What was the significance of the remilitarization of the Rhineland in March 1936?

A: It was a strategic move to place soldiers directly behind the French border, challenging the Treaty of Versailles without immediate repercussions.

75
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Q: How did the Munich Conference of 1938 relate to Hitler's expansionist aims?

A: Hitler used intimidation to annex the Sudetenland from Czechoslovakia, asserting "peace in our time," but later occupied the rest of Czechoslovakia.

76
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Q: What was the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact?

A: It was a non-aggression pact between Germany and the Soviet Union, signed in August 1939, allowing Germany to avoid a two-front war.

77
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Q: What marked the official end of appeasement policies in Britain?

A: The invasion of Poland on September 1, 1939, which led to Britain declaring war on Germany.

78
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Q: How did WWII differ from WWI in terms of ideology?

A: WWII was fought as an ideological crusade against a "bigger evil," with intense air strikes and a more significant involvement of politicians in military strategy.

79
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Q: What were the four phases of the persecution of European Jews?

A: 1) Discrimination; 2) Social exclusion; 3) Pogroms (e.g., Kristallnacht); 4) Annihilation.

80
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Q: What role did WWII play in the rise of nationalism in colonies?

A: The war created a power vacuum and led to strengthened nationalist movements, as many colonies sought independence after the war.

81
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Q: Who was a significant figure in the anti-colonial movement in India?

A: Mahatma Gandhi, who advocated for peaceful resistance and civil disobedience.

82
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Q: What was the outcome of the Indonesian declaration of independence?

A: The Republic of Indonesia was proclaimed on August 17, 1945, but faced Dutch military intervention until independence was recognized on December 27, 1949.

83
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Q: What significant events occurred in the Middle East post-WWII?

A: The proclamation of Israel in 1948, followed by Nasser's rise in Egypt and pan-Arabism, alongside various coups and nationalizations in Arab states.

84
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Q: What was the significance of the Atlantic Charter (1941)?

A: It laid the foundation for post-war cooperation and the establishment of a new world order based on self-determination and economic collaboration.

85
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Q: What was the primary conflict of the Cold War?

A: The Cold War was a global conflict primarily between the USSR and the US, characterized by a conflict of interests, power, and value systems (communism vs. liberal democracy/capitalism).

86
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Q: What is the definition of "proxy wars" in the context of the Cold War?

A: Proxy wars refer to indirect military conflicts where the superpowers supported opposing sides but avoided direct confrontation.

87
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Q: What was the Orthodox vision regarding the Cold War?

A: The Orthodox vision blamed the Soviets for the Cold War, arguing that as a communist power, they sought to expand their influence, prompting the US to adopt containment policies.

88
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Q: What is the Revisionist perspective on the Cold War?

A: Revisionism claims that the US was the expanding power, seeking new markets to protect its capitalist economy, while the USSR was primarily focused on its own security.

89
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Q: What does the term "post-revisionism" refer to?

A: Post-revisionism connects ideology with state interests, suggesting that both the US and USSR acted based on their ideologies and national interests, complicating the understanding of the Cold War.

90
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Q: What was George Kennan's contribution to the Cold War strategy?

A: George Kennan advocated for the containment policy, arguing that the Soviet Union was expansionist due to internal problems and needed to be contained rather than confronted militarily.

91
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Q: What was the purpose of the Marshall Plan?

A: The Marshall Plan aimed to rebuild European economies after WWII, promoting recovery to prevent the spread of communism and providing a market for American goods.

92
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Q: What was the Berlin Blockade and how did it end?

A: The Berlin Blockade (1948-1949) was an attempt by Stalin to limit access to West Berlin. It ended with the successful American airlift, which provided supplies to West Berlin.

93
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Q: What was NATO, and what principle did it operate on?

A: NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) was a military alliance established in 1949 based on the principle of collective defense, where an attack on one member was considered an attack on all.

94
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Q: What event marked the beginning of the Korean War?

A: The Korean War began on June 25, 1950, when North Korea invaded South Korea along the 38th parallel, leading to a UN intervention to defend the South.

95
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Q: What was the significance of the Cuban Missile Crisis?

A: The Cuban Missile Crisis (1962) brought the US and USSR to the brink of nuclear war and led to the establishment of a direct communication hotline between Washington and Moscow.

96
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Q: What characterized the period of détente?

A: Détente (1962-1975) was marked by efforts to ease tensions between the superpowers, arms control agreements (like SALT I and II), and the pursuit of military parity.

97
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Q: What were Gorbachev's major reforms?

A: Gorbachev introduced perestroika (economic restructuring) and glasnost (openness), aiming to reform the Soviet system and promote transparency.

98
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Q: What led to the fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989?

A: A combination of reforms in Eastern Europe, public dissent against communist regimes, and Gorbachev's policies contributed to the fall of the Berlin Wall.

99
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Q1: What is the concept of "Pillarization" in Dutch politics during the interbellum?

A1: A segregation in Dutch society characterized by vertical divisions among Protestant, Catholic, socialist, and liberal pillars, leading to distinct political and social lives within each group.

100
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Q2: What does the term "being part of a pillar" refer to?

A2: It refers to the submissive attitude of the masses within a pillar, where they comply with the authority of elites.

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