Bible Essays & Short Answers3

Why did God instruct Israel to destroy the Canaanites & the Amalekites in the Old Testament?

Ø  God didn't want the sin of those nations to influence Israel

Ø  They sinned through idolatry, incest, & child sacrifice

Ø  Those nations were corrupt & wanted to destroy Israel

Ø  God didn't want Israel to be conquered by them or to be drawn into their sin, but to be a blessing to all nations

Ø  God wanted Israel to be a holy & living testimony to others

Ø  Therefore, God ordered Israel to destroy those nations

How are we to understand the Hebrew word "haram," which is sometimes translated as "utterly destroy?"

Ø  It means putting people & things under God's judgment

Ø  Usually, it meant complete destruction

Ø  In war, it meant something was fully destroyed

Ø  Yet, in worship, it meant something left as an offering

Ø  At times those under it weren't "utterly destroyed"

Ø  That doesn't change its meaning it just meant Israel was disobeying God

Ø  At times God 1st issued a "haram" & then a treaty or intermarriage

Ø  That meant: Don't make a treaty or intermarry, just destroy them

 

What was the punishment for sexual immorality outlined in the Old Testament?

There are 2 sets of OT texts regarding different sexual sins

Ø  In some OT texts, the sinner must be separated from Israel

Ø  In other OT texts, the sinner must be executed for their sin

Why is it wrong to accuse God of being a megalomaniac?

~Megalomaniacs have delusions of greatness & think they’re worthy of worship

~ God really is the greatest & really is worthy of worship

~ This accusation assumes God is lying about his character