Cardio E2: Arrhythmias

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What procedure can be used to destroy a critical region of impulse generation/propagation in the heart that is causing arrhythmias?

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1

What procedure can be used to destroy a critical region of impulse generation/propagation in the heart that is causing arrhythmias?

Ablation

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2

What device is a small battery-powered electrical impulse generator that can be implanted in patients who are at risk of sudden cardiac death due to ventricular fibrillation?

Automated Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillator (AICD)

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3

How is severe, symptomatic sinus bradycardia treated?

Atropine, then pacemaker (if atropine is not effective)

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4

What is another term for Sick sinus syndrome?

Sinus Node Dysfunction (SND)

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5

How is sick sinus syndrome treated if the ejection fraction is normal?

Pacemaker

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6

How is sick sinus syndrome treated if the ejection fraction is <35%?

AICD

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7

What are the 3 classic ECG findings associated with WPW?

  • Short PR interval (<120ms)

  • Wide QRS w/ slurred delta wave

  • Secondary ST-T wave changes

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8

What should unstable WPW patients be treated with?

Synchronized cardioversion

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9

Patients with A fib + WPW + rapid ventricular response should be treated with what medications?

Amiodarone or Procainamide (to stabilize HR)

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10

What is the long term treatment of symptomatic WPW?

Radiofrequency ablation

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11

You should NOT use what type of agents alone for treatment of WPW?

- this will accentuate the accessory pathway and worsen the arrhythmia

AV nodal blocking agents (BBs, CCBs, adenosine, digoxin)

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12

Which medications should NOT be used alone for treatment of WPW?

BBs, CCBs, Adenosine, Digoxin

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13

Acute A fib:

New-onset A fib lasting <48 hours

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14

Paroxysmal A fib:

Recurrent A fib that typically lasts <48 hours and converts spontaneously to normal sinus rhythm

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15

Permanent A fib:

A fib with duration >7 days, unable to maintain sinus rhythym

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16

Rapid ventricular response in atrial fibrillation is when the ventricular rate is greater than ____ BPM

100

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17

TTE or TEE:
Evaluation of left atrial thrombus

TEE

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18

TTE or TEE:
To guide cardioversion

TEE

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19

TTE or TEE:
To evaluate pericardial disease

TTE

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20

TTE or TEE:
To evaluate atrial and ventricular chamber/wall dimensions

TTE

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21

TTE or TEE:
To evaluate for valvular heart disease

TTE

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22

TTE or TEE:
To estimate ventricular function

TTE

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23

TTE or TEE:
To estimate pulmonary systolic pressure (pulm HTN)

TTE

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24

TTE or TEE:
Better for looking at the left side of the heart + more resolution

TEE

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25

TTE or TEE:
2D doppler that can be done at bedside

TTE

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26

What is the drug of choice for treatment of acute A fib for rate control?

IV Cardizem (Diltiazem)

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27

We should be cautious with giving what drug in acute treatment of A fib, because it can cardiovert to NSR?

Amiodarone

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28

How should a patient with acute stable A fib be treated?

HR control (Diltiazem)

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29

How should a patient with acute unstable A fib be treated?

Cardioversion

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30

What is the last option to treat A fib, and only used if the patient is also in heart failure?

Digoxin

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31

If the patient has been in A fib for _____ hours, you can assume no clot is in the atrium.

<48

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32

If the patient has been in A fib for >48 hours, what do we have to assume?

There is a clot

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33

What must be done for treatment if the patient has been in A fib for >48 hours?

Get a TEE to prove there is no clot before cardioversion, OR min 3 months of anticoagulation

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34

What must be done for treatment if the patient has been in A fib for <48 hours, but cannot be converted to NSR?

Anticoagulation

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35

What is the CHA2DS2-VASc score used for?

To estimate risk of stroke in patients w/ A fib

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36

What drug do you give for any valvular heart disease + A fib?

Warfarin

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37

What is the recommended treatment for a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 0?

Low risk- no therapy is reasonable

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38

What is the recommended treatment for a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 1?

Patient/provider decision- may do nothing, OR oral anticoagulation, OR ASA

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39

What is the recommended treatment for a CHA2DS2-VASc score of >2?

High risk- DOAC or Warfarin recommended
(DOAC = direct oral anticoagulants)

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40

How many CHA2DS2-VASc points:
CHF history

1

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41

How many CHA2DS2-VASc points:
HTN (BP > 140/90)

1

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42

How many CHA2DS2-VASc points:

Age >75 years

2

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43

How many CHA2DS2-VASc points:
DM

1

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44

How many CHA2DS2-VASc points:
Prior stroke/TIA/Thromboembolsim

2

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45

How many CHA2DS2-VASc points:
Vascular disease

1

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46

How many CHA2DS2-VASc points:
Age 65-74

1

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47

How many CHA2DS2-VASc points:
Sex category (female)

1

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48

What are the Direct Oral Anticoagulants (DOACs)?

Apixaban (Eliquis)
Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
Edoxaban (Savaysa)
Ribaroxaban (Xarelto)

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49

DOACs are first line therapy for what condition?

A fib

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50

Which drug has strongest evidence for chronic A fib with prosthetic mechanical heart valves?

Warfarin

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51

What is the association between alcohol use and rhythm disturbances, particularly supraventricular arrhythmias in apparently healthy people?

Holiday heart syndrome

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52

What is the most common rhythm disorder seen in Holiday Heart Syndrome?

A fib

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53

What is the most common symptom of atrial flutter?

Palpitations

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54

What does Atrial flutter show on an EKG?

Sawtooth pattern

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55

Refractory cases of atrial flutter should undergo what procedure?

Ablation

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56

What is a common arrhythmia that can be caused by alcohol, coffee, stimulants, and excitement?

SVT/PSVT

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57

What is the rate for SVT/PSVT?

150-250 BPM

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58

What is first line therapy for SVT/PSVT? Why?

Vagal maneuvers- kicks in the parasympathetic system to slow the rhythm

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59

Which vagal maneuver is dangerous in older people?

Carotid massage

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60

What is a vagal maneuver that should NOT be done if a bruit is heard or if the person is older?

Carotid massage

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61

What is the pharmacologic agent that is 2nd line treatment for SVT/PSVT?

Adenosine (avoid in WPW/COPD/asthma)

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62

What causes the R on T phenomenon?

When PVC occurs so early that it falls during the repolarization, which can result in V fib

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63

What is the treatment for PVCs?

Empiric BBs

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64

Torsades de pointes is associated with what on an EKG?

Prolonged QT interval (may be congenital or acquired)

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65

In a young patient with Torsades, what should be considered?

Congenital long QT syndrome

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66

What is the drug of choice for treatment of Torsades?

IV Mag sulfate

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67

What is the most commonly identified arrhythmia in cardiac arrest patients?

Ventricular fibrillation

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68

What is the treatment for ventricular fibrillation?

Immediate defibrillation

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69

What kind of pulse will a patient in V fib have?

Pulseless

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70

What arrhythmia is the cause of most sudden cardiac deaths?

VT or VF

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71

What has a very fast ventricular rate that is usually dissociated from an underlying atrial rate?

V tach

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72

How should a stable patient in V tach with a pulse be treated?

Amiodarone or Procainamide

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73

How should an unstable patient in V tach with a pulse be treated?

Synchronized cardioversion

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74

What is the treatment for a patient who is pulseless in V tach?

Defibrillation, CPR, Amiodarone, Epi

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75

Ashman's phenomenon:

Aberrant ventricular conduction, usually of RBBB morphology, which follows a short R-R interval and preceding relatively prolonged R-R interval

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76

What is often seen in A fib, but is clinically asymptomatic on its own?

Ashman's phenomenon

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77

How should 2nd degree AV block Mobitz I be treated if the patient is symptomatic?

Atropine, Transcuatenous pacing

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78

3rd degree AV blocks should be treated with what device?

Dual-chamber permanent pacemaker

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79

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Quinidine

1A

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80

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Procainamide

1A

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81

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Disopyramide

1A

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82

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Lidocaine

1B

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83

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Diphenylhydantoin (Phenytoin)

1B

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84

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Flecainide

1C

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85

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Propafenone

1C

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86

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Beta blockers

2

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87

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Amiodarone

3

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88

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Sotalol

3

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89

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Verapamil

4

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90

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Diltiazem

4

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91

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Adenosine

5

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92

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Digoxin

5

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93

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Block sodium channels

1A, 1B, 1C

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94

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Block potassium channels

3

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95

What are some adverse effects of Quinidine?

Prolonged QT interval, Torsades

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96

Which antiarrhythmic can cause Lupus like syndrome?

Procainamide

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97

What is the primary use of Lidocaine as an antiarrhythmic?

Prevention of recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias

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98

What is a common side effect of Tocainide?

Toxic CNS effects

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99

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Tocainide

1B

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100

Which class of antiarrhythmics:
Mexilitine

1B

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