1/174
Looks like no tags are added yet.
Name | Mastery | Learn | Test | Matching | Spaced | Call with Kai |
|---|
No analytics yet
Send a link to your students to track their progress
ELISA detects and quantifies
soluble proteins in biological fluids
Redox dye
Compounds that vary in their spectral absorbance properties depending on when they are in their oxidized or reduced state;
Used to determine presence of substance
Horse radish peroxidase
Redox dye which breaks down hydrogen peroxide & oxidizes itself — UV to visible spectrum
Direct ELISA procedure
Target Antigen is bound to the plate through adsorption and the rest of the plate is blocked with an inert protein
Enzyme-conjugated antibody is added and attaches to antigen
Redox dye is added, color forms in contact with molecule on the enzyme-conjugated antibody
Indirect ELISA procedure
Plate is coated with antigen and inert protein
Serum is added and target antibody binds to antigen
Secondary conjugated antibody is added to bind to target antibody
Quantitative (sandwich) ELISA
Uses a standard curve of pure target protein to determine the amount of protein in a sample
Capture antibody → Sample (antigen) → biotin-conjugated secondary antibody → conjugate for enzyme on secondary antibody → substrate solution
Immunohistochemistry is performed on
thin sections of tissues examined microscopically
Immunohistochemistry process
Primary antibody directed against the target protein is added then washed → secondary enzyme-conjugated antibody, wash → substrate producing color under microscopy
Trastuzumab (Herceptin)
Monoclonal antibody-based drug that targets HER-2 overexpressed in 1/3 of breast cancers;
Used as primary antibody in immunohistochemistry
Fluorescence
Physical property where an atom or molecule absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at a lower wavelength
Emission wavelengths are always ___ than the absorption wavelengths
longer
Fluorescent microscopy analyzes
cells or tissues
Fluorescent microscopy process
Cells/tissues are fixed onto glass slides and stained with fluorochrome-labeled antibodies which are illuminated and viewed through a filter
Anti-nuclear Antibody (ANA) Test
Fluorescent microscopy test which detects antibody response (by addition of patient serum to grown human cells) against certain intra-nuclear proteins
Flow cytometry assesses
Expression of proteins at the surface of cells
Flow cytometry process
Antibodies conjugated with fluorescent substituents stain cells
Cells are passed through a cytometer (excites the fluorochromes and detectors sense light emitted)
Single-color flow cytometry data is displayed as a
Histogram
Dual-color flow cytometry data is displayed in a
dot plot
Western blotting
SDS-PAGE + antibodies to identify known proteins
SDS-PAGE
Separates a mixture of proteins on the basis of protein mass
SDS-PAGE Procedure
produce gel matrix (Acrylamide monomer + cross-linked polymer form a slab open on two ends)
Proteins extracted are solubilized in buffers with sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS)
Proteins are injected into the gel and an electric current is supplied at the cathode
Sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS)
Detergent that breaks up cells and regularizes the charge/mass ratio of the hydrophobic chains of the protein backbone
Beta-mercaptoethanol
Reducing agent sometimes used in SDS-PAGE to break up disulfide bonds in proteins
Coomassie Blue dye
General protein stain often used in SDS-PAGE
Western blotting procedure
Perform SDS-PAGE
Finished gel is placed atop buffer pre-wetted blotting paper + Nitrocellulose paper + more pre-wetted blotting paper
Electric current is ran through the gel so that proteins leave and are absorbed onto the nitrocellulose paper
Nitrocellulose paper is incubated with a series of antibodies (Primary for antigen and secondary enzyme-linked) then enzyme substrate for color or light production
T Cell Receptor structure
Composed of 2 polypeptide chains (alpha and beta) with n-terminal variable regions
Has a middle constant region and a c-terminal transmembrane region with a short cytoplasmic tail
T Cell Receptor variability is generated by
Somatic recombination
After rearrangement, TCRs do NOT
Change (no somatic hyper-mutation, affinity mutation, or equivalent of B cell “class switching”)
Complementarity determining regions (CDRs)
Hypervariable regions exist as loops at the far end of the receptor
TCRs have how many CDRs
3
The variable region of the alpha chain TCR is composed of
One variable and one joining segment via somatic recombination
The variable region of the beta chain TCR is composed of
A V, D, and J segments
Candida albicans
Microorganism that causes a benign yeast infection in women
Infection of the oral mucosa in the immunocompromised leads to Thrush
Severe combined immunodeficiency disorder (SCID)
Lack of RAG function (essential for gene re-arrangement) leading to the inability to resist infection
CD3
6 polypeptide chains which allow the TCR to leave the ER, transit the Golgi, and wind up on the cell surface
TCR complex
The TCR heterodimer associated with the 6 CD3 chains
Gamma-delta TCRs
Congregate at gut mucosal
Have much less diversity in receptors
Recognize lipid antigens and heat shock proteins (HSPs) in context of non-classical MHC molecules or no MHC
Class I pathway
Proteasomes degrade proteins and release short peptides or single amino acids that are transported into the ER to the MHC by IFNs and TAP. Degraded proteins meet up with MHC Class I proteins in ER and peptide-loaded MHC molecules are transported in vesicles to the surface of the cell
Proteasome
Multisubunit multicatalytic protease complex arranged into a stack of 4 rings with 7 subunits each
IFNs that use subunits to favor peptide transport into ER
LMP2, LMP7, and MECL-1
LMP2, LMP7, and MECL-1
Displace 3 corresponding proteasome subunits and substitutes for the main the structure; alters the enzymatic specificity of proteolysis by increasing cleavage after hydrophobic amino acids and decreasing cleavage after acidic amino acids
Immunoproteasome
the IFN-altered enzyme complex
IFN-γ initiates the production of
PA28 (proteasome activator)
PA28
Interacts with the alpha rings forming the entrance and exit portals causing a conformational change to open it wide (more proteins are processed and ejected before being totally degraded)
TAP (transporter of antigenic peptides)
Dimeric structure; each subunit contains a hydrophobic transmembrane domain that forms a channel and a cytosol-oriented ATP binding cassette (ABC) domain
TAP complex function
Hyrdolyzes ATP and uses the energy to translocate proteasome-produced peptides from the cytoplasm and into the ER
MHC Class I heavy chains in the ER are found
in a partially-folded state, complexed with calnexin
Calnexin
Chaperone protein that holds MHC Class I molecules in the ER and prevents transit into the golgi
Calnexin is displaced by
B3 microglobulin association with Class I heavy chain
Partially-folded alpha:Beta2 heterodimer associated with
calreticulin and Tapasin
Tapasin function
Forms a bridge with TAP complex
ERp57 and protein disulfide isomerase (PDI)
Help break and reform disulfide bonds in the MHC, facilitating peptide binding and the correct MHC folding
Once peptide is bound to MHC it
Finishes folding and the peptide binding complex dissociates
Class II pathway
Proteins are taken into the cell by phagocytic/endocytic vesicles where they are broken down; MHC molecules are taken out of the ER and fuse with phagolysosomes where they bind to the degraded protein fragments and taken to the cell surface
The acid protease activated by low pH which reduces disulfide bonds in a phagocytic/endocytic vesicle is
Cathepsin
IFN-lambda-induced thiol reductase (GILT)
facilitates reduction of disulfide bonds that aids in proteolysis in a phagocytic/endocytic vesicle
Invariant chain (Ii)
Chain which binds to Class II MHC to prevent internally-generated peptides from being picked up while in transit to the ER
Ii is cleaved into
CLIP (Class II-associated invariant chain peptide) — place-holder peptide
Ii:MHC complex is formed in the
ER
Ii:MHC complex must be transported to the _____ to bind with the vesicles fused with phagolysosomes
cytoplasm
HLA-DM
Associates with MHC Class II:CLIP complex to induce release of CLIP and allow cathepsin-degraded protein fragments to bind
The only cells that can sensitize naive T cells to antigen are
DCs
Antigen cross-presentation
the process by which externally-acquired antigen enters the Class I processing pathway
Immune response genes (Ir)
Genes responsible for the control over the ability to respond to a given antigen
The region encoding histocompatible genes (MHC Class I & II molecules) in mice is
H-2
MHC Class I loci in mice
K, D, and L
What is not encoded in the H-2 region (mice AND humans)?
Beta-2 microglobulin
MHC Class II loci in mice are
I-A and I-E
Major histocompatibility complex
H-2 region; contains genes for MHC Class I and II proteins, tapasin, LMP2, LMP7, and TAP
MHC molecules are passed down in genetics as a
Haplotype; one from mother and one from father
MHC genes are expressed
Co-dominantly
Human Class I loci
HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C
Human Class II loci
HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, and HLA-DP
Polymorphism
Many gene variants in the population
Polygeny
Presence of several genes with similar function present within a single individual (several loci)
Who is likely to be a tissue/organ donor
The sibling (25% chance of the same two haplotypes)
For a peptide to strongly interact with the peptide binding groove, there must be. . .
Points of complementarity in shape, charge, and hydrophobicity between the peptide and corresponding contact points
Peptides that bind to MHC alleles display what AAs at anchor positions
hydrophobic residues
Variability occurs in the ______________ domains of Class I MHC
alpha 1 and 2
Variability occurs in the ______ chain in Class II HLA-DR
beta
MHC Genes are… (diversity wise)
Polymorphic and polygenic
Superantigen
Antigens made by bacteria or viruses that bind to common determinants on both non-polymorphic regions of MHC Class II molecules and TCR regions and activate the T cells that do not traditionally recognize the antigen
Staphylococcus aureus produces the superantigen
TSST-1
Exposure to superantigens can lead to
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome Sx
Fever, malaise, low BP, vomiting, rash, multiple organ failure, and death
Superantigens induce the
Massive release of pro-inflammatory cytokines
Prolonged exposure of pro-inflammatory cytokines leads to the induction of
IL-10 (anti-inflammatory) and down-regulates MHC expression
Polymorphisms of MHC are restricted to the
peptide-binding “floor” or edges of helices facing the groove
How is T cell development similar to B cell development
Developmental stages are defined by receptor re-arrangements
Positive and negative selection mechanisms assure receptor quality and guard against auto-reactive cells
T cells leave the ________ to rearrange TCR in the ______
bone marrow; thymus
MHC Class II restricted T lymphocytes are
CD4 cells (turn into helper)
MHC Class I restricted T lymphocytes are
CD8 cells (turn into cytotoxic)
Thymus
primary lymphoid organ located in the anterior chest cavity above the heart and just below the notch of the sternum
Critical cells of the thymus
Thymocytes and thymic stroma
Thymocytes
Bone-marrow-derived T cell precursors
Thymic stroma
Network of epithelial cells tasked for T cell development
Lobules
Separate compartments in the thymus bounded by a capsule; contains the cortex and medulla
Cortex
outer region more closely packed with cells
Medulla
Innermost region of a capsule that is less dense with cells
T cell progenitors enter the thymus at the. . . and then divide and migrate into the. . .
Interface of the cortex and medulla;
Subcapsular region of the cortex