Module 2 - Immunology

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Last updated 12:49 AM on 3/19/26
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175 Terms

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ELISA detects and quantifies

soluble proteins in biological fluids

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Redox dye

Compounds that vary in their spectral absorbance properties depending on when they are in their oxidized or reduced state;

Used to determine presence of substance

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Horse radish peroxidase

Redox dye which breaks down hydrogen peroxide & oxidizes itself — UV to visible spectrum

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Direct ELISA procedure

  1. Target Antigen is bound to the plate through adsorption and the rest of the plate is blocked with an inert protein

  2. Enzyme-conjugated antibody is added and attaches to antigen

  3. Redox dye is added, color forms in contact with molecule on the enzyme-conjugated antibody

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Indirect ELISA procedure

  1. Plate is coated with antigen and inert protein

  2. Serum is added and target antibody binds to antigen

  3. Secondary conjugated antibody is added to bind to target antibody

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Quantitative (sandwich) ELISA

Uses a standard curve of pure target protein to determine the amount of protein in a sample

Capture antibody → Sample (antigen) → biotin-conjugated secondary antibody → conjugate for enzyme on secondary antibody → substrate solution

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Immunohistochemistry is performed on

thin sections of tissues examined microscopically

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Immunohistochemistry process

Primary antibody directed against the target protein is added then washed → secondary enzyme-conjugated antibody, wash → substrate producing color under microscopy

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Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

Monoclonal antibody-based drug that targets HER-2 overexpressed in 1/3 of breast cancers;

Used as primary antibody in immunohistochemistry

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Fluorescence

Physical property where an atom or molecule absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at a lower wavelength

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Emission wavelengths are always ___ than the absorption wavelengths

longer

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Fluorescent microscopy analyzes

cells or tissues

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Fluorescent microscopy process

Cells/tissues are fixed onto glass slides and stained with fluorochrome-labeled antibodies which are illuminated and viewed through a filter

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Anti-nuclear Antibody (ANA) Test

Fluorescent microscopy test which detects antibody response (by addition of patient serum to grown human cells) against certain intra-nuclear proteins

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Flow cytometry assesses

Expression of proteins at the surface of cells

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Flow cytometry process

  1. Antibodies conjugated with fluorescent substituents stain cells

  2. Cells are passed through a cytometer (excites the fluorochromes and detectors sense light emitted)

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Single-color flow cytometry data is displayed as a

Histogram

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Dual-color flow cytometry data is displayed in a

dot plot

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Western blotting

SDS-PAGE + antibodies to identify known proteins

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SDS-PAGE

Separates a mixture of proteins on the basis of protein mass

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SDS-PAGE Procedure

  1. produce gel matrix (Acrylamide monomer + cross-linked polymer form a slab open on two ends)

  2. Proteins extracted are solubilized in buffers with sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS)

  3. Proteins are injected into the gel and an electric current is supplied at the cathode

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Sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS)

Detergent that breaks up cells and regularizes the charge/mass ratio of the hydrophobic chains of the protein backbone

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Beta-mercaptoethanol

Reducing agent sometimes used in SDS-PAGE to break up disulfide bonds in proteins

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Coomassie Blue dye

General protein stain often used in SDS-PAGE

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Western blotting procedure

  1. Perform SDS-PAGE

  2. Finished gel is placed atop buffer pre-wetted blotting paper + Nitrocellulose paper + more pre-wetted blotting paper

  3. Electric current is ran through the gel so that proteins leave and are absorbed onto the nitrocellulose paper

  4. Nitrocellulose paper is incubated with a series of antibodies (Primary for antigen and secondary enzyme-linked) then enzyme substrate for color or light production

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T Cell Receptor structure

Composed of 2 polypeptide chains (alpha and beta) with n-terminal variable regions

Has a middle constant region and a c-terminal transmembrane region with a short cytoplasmic tail

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T Cell Receptor variability is generated by

Somatic recombination

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After rearrangement, TCRs do NOT

Change (no somatic hyper-mutation, affinity mutation, or equivalent of B cell “class switching”)

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Complementarity determining regions (CDRs)

Hypervariable regions exist as loops at the far end of the receptor

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TCRs have how many CDRs

3

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The variable region of the alpha chain TCR is composed of

One variable and one joining segment via somatic recombination

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The variable region of the beta chain TCR is composed of

A V, D, and J segments

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Candida albicans

Microorganism that causes a benign yeast infection in women

Infection of the oral mucosa in the immunocompromised leads to Thrush

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Severe combined immunodeficiency disorder (SCID)

Lack of RAG function (essential for gene re-arrangement) leading to the inability to resist infection

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CD3

6 polypeptide chains which allow the TCR to leave the ER, transit the Golgi, and wind up on the cell surface

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TCR complex

The TCR heterodimer associated with the 6 CD3 chains

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Gamma-delta TCRs

Congregate at gut mucosal

Have much less diversity in receptors

Recognize lipid antigens and heat shock proteins (HSPs) in context of non-classical MHC molecules or no MHC

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Class I pathway

Proteasomes degrade proteins and release short peptides or single amino acids that are transported into the ER to the MHC by IFNs and TAP. Degraded proteins meet up with MHC Class I proteins in ER and peptide-loaded MHC molecules are transported in vesicles to the surface of the cell

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Proteasome

Multisubunit multicatalytic protease complex arranged into a stack of 4 rings with 7 subunits each

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IFNs that use subunits to favor peptide transport into ER

LMP2, LMP7, and MECL-1

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LMP2, LMP7, and MECL-1

Displace 3 corresponding proteasome subunits and substitutes for the main the structure; alters the enzymatic specificity of proteolysis by increasing cleavage after hydrophobic amino acids and decreasing cleavage after acidic amino acids

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Immunoproteasome

the IFN-altered enzyme complex

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IFN-γ initiates the production of

PA28 (proteasome activator)

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PA28

Interacts with the alpha rings forming the entrance and exit portals causing a conformational change to open it wide (more proteins are processed and ejected before being totally degraded)

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TAP (transporter of antigenic peptides)

Dimeric structure; each subunit contains a hydrophobic transmembrane domain that forms a channel and a cytosol-oriented ATP binding cassette (ABC) domain

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TAP complex function

Hyrdolyzes ATP and uses the energy to translocate proteasome-produced peptides from the cytoplasm and into the ER

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MHC Class I heavy chains in the ER are found

in a partially-folded state, complexed with calnexin

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Calnexin

Chaperone protein that holds MHC Class I molecules in the ER and prevents transit into the golgi

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Calnexin is displaced by

B3 microglobulin association with Class I heavy chain

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Partially-folded alpha:Beta2 heterodimer associated with

calreticulin and Tapasin

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Tapasin function

Forms a bridge with TAP complex

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ERp57 and protein disulfide isomerase (PDI)

Help break and reform disulfide bonds in the MHC, facilitating peptide binding and the correct MHC folding

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Once peptide is bound to MHC it

Finishes folding and the peptide binding complex dissociates

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Class II pathway

Proteins are taken into the cell by phagocytic/endocytic vesicles where they are broken down; MHC molecules are taken out of the ER and fuse with phagolysosomes where they bind to the degraded protein fragments and taken to the cell surface

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The acid protease activated by low pH which reduces disulfide bonds in a phagocytic/endocytic vesicle is

Cathepsin

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IFN-lambda-induced thiol reductase (GILT)

facilitates reduction of disulfide bonds that aids in proteolysis in a phagocytic/endocytic vesicle

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Invariant chain (Ii)

Chain which binds to Class II MHC to prevent internally-generated peptides from being picked up while in transit to the ER

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Ii is cleaved into

CLIP (Class II-associated invariant chain peptide) — place-holder peptide

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Ii:MHC complex is formed in the

ER

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Ii:MHC complex must be transported to the _____ to bind with the vesicles fused with phagolysosomes

cytoplasm

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HLA-DM

Associates with MHC Class II:CLIP complex to induce release of CLIP and allow cathepsin-degraded protein fragments to bind

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The only cells that can sensitize naive T cells to antigen are

DCs

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Antigen cross-presentation

the process by which externally-acquired antigen enters the Class I processing pathway

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Immune response genes (Ir)

Genes responsible for the control over the ability to respond to a given antigen

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The region encoding histocompatible genes (MHC Class I & II molecules) in mice is

H-2

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MHC Class I loci in mice

K, D, and L

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What is not encoded in the H-2 region (mice AND humans)?

Beta-2 microglobulin

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MHC Class II loci in mice are

I-A and I-E

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Major histocompatibility complex

H-2 region; contains genes for MHC Class I and II proteins, tapasin, LMP2, LMP7, and TAP

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MHC molecules are passed down in genetics as a

Haplotype; one from mother and one from father

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MHC genes are expressed

Co-dominantly

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Human Class I loci

HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C

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Human Class II loci

HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, and HLA-DP

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Polymorphism

Many gene variants in the population

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Polygeny

Presence of several genes with similar function present within a single individual (several loci)

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Who is likely to be a tissue/organ donor

The sibling (25% chance of the same two haplotypes)

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For a peptide to strongly interact with the peptide binding groove, there must be. . .

Points of complementarity in shape, charge, and hydrophobicity between the peptide and corresponding contact points

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Peptides that bind to MHC alleles display what AAs at anchor positions

hydrophobic residues

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Variability occurs in the ______________ domains of Class I MHC

alpha 1 and 2

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Variability occurs in the ______ chain in Class II HLA-DR

beta

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MHC Genes are… (diversity wise)

Polymorphic and polygenic

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Superantigen

Antigens made by bacteria or viruses that bind to common determinants on both non-polymorphic regions of MHC Class II molecules and TCR regions and activate the T cells that do not traditionally recognize the antigen

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Staphylococcus aureus produces the superantigen

TSST-1

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Exposure to superantigens can lead to

Toxic Shock Syndrome

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Toxic shock syndrome Sx

Fever, malaise, low BP, vomiting, rash, multiple organ failure, and death

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Superantigens induce the

Massive release of pro-inflammatory cytokines

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Prolonged exposure of pro-inflammatory cytokines leads to the induction of

IL-10 (anti-inflammatory) and down-regulates MHC expression

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Polymorphisms of MHC are restricted to the

peptide-binding “floor” or edges of helices facing the groove

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How is T cell development similar to B cell development

Developmental stages are defined by receptor re-arrangements

Positive and negative selection mechanisms assure receptor quality and guard against auto-reactive cells

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T cells leave the ________ to rearrange TCR in the ______

bone marrow; thymus

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MHC Class II restricted T lymphocytes are

CD4 cells (turn into helper)

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MHC Class I restricted T lymphocytes are

CD8 cells (turn into cytotoxic)

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Thymus

primary lymphoid organ located in the anterior chest cavity above the heart and just below the notch of the sternum

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Critical cells of the thymus

Thymocytes and thymic stroma

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Thymocytes

Bone-marrow-derived T cell precursors

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Thymic stroma

Network of epithelial cells tasked for T cell development

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Lobules

Separate compartments in the thymus bounded by a capsule; contains the cortex and medulla

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Cortex

outer region more closely packed with cells

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Medulla

Innermost region of a capsule that is less dense with cells

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T cell progenitors enter the thymus at the. . . and then divide and migrate into the. . .

Interface of the cortex and medulla;

Subcapsular region of the cortex

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