5301 Exam 3 Study

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115 Terms

1
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what type of surface active agent is bactericidal and toxic if taken internally
a) anionic
b) cationic
c) nonionic

b) cationic

2
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what type of surface active agent is non-toxic and not susceptible to pH changes
a) anionic
b) cationic
c) nonionic

c) nonionic

3
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the critical micelle concentration is best defined as...
a) the concentration of surfactant that initially breaks surface tension of the solution
b) the point at which adding more surfactant will began to decrease surface tension
c) the point at which adding more surfactant will no longer change surface tension and micelles are formed
d) the concentration of surfactant at which surface tension can no longer increase

c) the point at which adding more surfactant will no longer change surface tension and micelles are formed

4
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if a surfactant has an HLB value <10, it is [hydrophilic/hydrophobic]

hydrophobic

5
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which of the following are types of emulsions (select all that apply)
a) o/w
b) w/o
c) o/w/o
d) w/o/w

a) o/w
b) w/o
c) o/w/o
d) w/o/w

6
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which of the following are tests to determine emulsion type (select all that apply)
a) micelle test
b) dilution test
c) dye test
d) conductivity test
e) precipitation test

b) dilution test
c) dye test
d) conductivity test

7
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which of the following is an anionic surface-active agent
a) sorbitan monopalmitate
b) tween 40
c) cetrimethyl ammonium bromide
d) sodium lauryl sulfate

d) sodium lauryl sulfate

8
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span 40 and tween 40 are examples of...
a) anionic surface-active agents
b) cationic surface-active agents
c) nonionic surface-active agents

c) nonionic surface-active agents

9
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which of the following are natural emulsifying agents (select all that apply)
a) sodium oleate
b) acacia
c) gelatin
d) sodium lauryl sulfate
e) veegum
f) lecithin

a) sodium oleate
b) acacia
c) gelatin
f) lecithin

10
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which of the following are isotonic solutions in the human body? (select all that apply)
a) dextrose 5%
b) distilled water
c) mannitol 0.5%
d) sodium chloride 0.9%
e) 1.8% urea

a) dextrose 5%
d) sodium chloride 0.9%

11
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which of the following would form solid particle films in solution and create finely dispersed solids in the emulsion (select all that apply)
a) sodium lauryl sulfate
b) span 40
c) bentonite
d) veegum
e) lecithin
f) acacia

c) bentonite
d) veegum

12
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you are trying to compound an o/w emulsion. a surfactant of which of the following HLB values would you select for your emulsion?
a) HLB of 12.2
b) HLB of 4.3
c) HLB of 9.8
d) HLB of 0.9

a) HLB of 12.2
(higher HLB = more hydrophilic surfactant
HLB <10 is considered hydrophobic)

13
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which of the following is are colligative properties (select all that apply)
a) lowering of vapor pressure
b) elevation of boiling point
c) depression of freezing point
d) osmotic pressure
e) reduction of surface tension

a) lowering of vapor pressure
b) elevation of boiling point
c) depression of freezing point
d) osmotic pressure

14
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additive properties depend on...
a) the total number of particles in a solution
b) the total number of atoms in a molecule
c) the arrangement of atoms within a molecule
d) the total number of atoms in a solution

b) the total number of atoms in a molecule

15
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constitutive properties depend on...
a) the total number of particles in a solution
b) the total number of atoms in a molecule
c) the arrangement of atoms within a molecule
d) the total number of atoms in a solution

c) the arrangement of atoms within a molecule

16
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colligative properties depend on...
a) the total number of particles in a solution
b) the total number of atoms in a molecule
c) the arrangement of atoms within a molecule
d) the total number of atoms in a solution

a) the total number of particles in a solution

17
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how does the presence of a non-volatile solute decrease solvent evaporation
a) non-volatile solute take up the solution surface space, suppressing the solvent particles below
b) presence of a non-volatile solute increases solvent surface tension, preventing particles from evaporating
c) presence of a non-volatile solute means fewer solvent particles at the solution's surface

c) presence of a non-volatile solute means fewer solvent particles at the solution's surface

18
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T or F? solutions such as urea and boric acid can only be isosmotic, never isotonic, with red blood cells

true

19
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which of the following phenomenon of emulsions is NOT reversible
a) creaming
b) breaking
c) aggregation
d) sedimentation

b) breaking

20
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the method used to remove low molecular impurities that are charged is...
a) electrodialysis
b) ultrafiltration
c) hemodialysis
d) chemical dialysis

a) electrodialysis

21
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the method of dialysis where suction is applied to remove small molecules and colloidal size molecules are retained is...
a) electrodialysis
b) ultrafiltration
c) hemodialysis
d) vaccum dialysis

b) ultrafiltration

22
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which of the following dialyses is used in the artificial kidney to remove substances such as urea, uric acid, and other metabolites
a) electrodialysis
b) ultrafiltration
c) hemodialysis
d) tubule dialysis

c) hemodialysis

23
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magmas are...
a) two-phase gel systems with large particles
b) single-phase gel systems with large particles
c) two-phase emulsions with large particles
d) single-phase gel systems with small particles

a) two-phased gel systems with large particles

24
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a gel is...
a) a single-phase system with micro-particles distributed throughout the medium
b) a two-phase system with large particles uniformly distributed throughout a solution
c) a single-phase system with macromolecules uniformly distributed throughout a liquid
d) a two-phased system with organic molecules evenly distributed throughout a liquid

c) a single-phase system with macromolecules uniformly distributed throughout a liquid

25
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what is the range of osmolarity for isotonic solutions injected into the human body
a) 250-300 mOsm/L
b) 290-350 mOsm/L
c) 275-310 mOsm/L
d) 300-375 mOsm/L

c) 275-310 mOsm/L

26
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T or F? in steam sterilization, the high pressure kills microorganisms

false
the temperature kills, not the pressure (the pressure helps to achieve higher temperature)

27
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what are the 5 methods of sterilization

1. steam sterilization
2. dry heat sterilization
3. sterilization by filtration
4. gas sterilization
5. sterilization by ionizing radiation

28
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steam sterilization is NOT useful for...
a) surgical instruments
b) glassware
c) solutions in ampules
d) oleaginous substances

d) oleaginous substances

29
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which of the following are TRUE regarding steam sterilization (select all that apply)
a) works by denaturing bacterial protein
b) it is conducted in an autoclave
c) requires steam under pressure
d) is less effective than dry heat sterilization

a) works by denaturing bacterial protein
b) it is conducted in an autoclave
c) requires steam under pressure

30
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which of the following describes the mechanism by which gas sterilization kills cells or spores of microorganisms?
a) by denaturing bacterial protein
b) by damaging their DNA
c) by alkylation of various reactive groups
d) by oxidative damge

c) by alkylation of various reactive groups

31
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which of the following describes the mechanism by which sterilization by ionizing radiation kills cells or spores of microorganisms?
a) by denaturing bacterial protein
b) by damaging their DNA
c) by alkylation of various reactive groups
d) by oxidative damage

b) by damaging their DNA

32
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which of the following describes the mechanism by which dry heat sterilization kills cells or spores of microorganisms?
a) by denaturing bacterial protein
b) by damaging their DNA
c) by alkylation of various reactive groups
d) by oxidative damage

d) by oxidative damage

33
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what are pyrogens?

metabolic products of bacteria which cause fever and chills in the human body

34
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which of the following are ways to test for pyrogen in an injectable? (select all that apply)
a) endotoxin test
b) peroxidase test
c) rabbit test
d) limulus lysate test (LAL)

c) rabbit test
d) limulus lysate test (LAL)

35
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a critical site is...
a) any area of the body that comes into contact with pathogenic microorganisms
b) any opening that provides a direct pathway between a sterilized product and the environment
c) any area of a sterilized object contaminated by unsterilized equipment
d) any surface that is sterilized

b) any opening that provides a direct pathway between a sterilized product and the environment

36
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you are trying to sterilize by filtration. you will need filters of...
a) 0.1 microns
b) 0.5 microns
c) 0.01 microns
d) 0.2 microns

d) 0.2 microns

37
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which of the following best defines antiseptic?
a) a substance that kills microorganisms
b) a substance that destroys microbes and bacteria spores
c) a substance that destroys microbes but does not kill bacteria spores
d) a substance that stops the growth of microorganisms without necessarily destroying them

d) a substance that stops the growth of microorganisms without necessarily destroying them

38
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disinfection is best defined as...
a) a process in which microbes are destroyed, but not bacteria spores
b) a process in which microbes are destroyed, including bacteria spores
c) a process in which microbes are made dormant, preventing them from replicating

a) a process in which microbes are destroyed, but not bacteria spores

39
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sterility is best defined as...
a) the absence of viable microorgnaisms
b) the absence of bacterial spores
c) the destruction of all microorganisms including their spores
d) the absence of viruses

a) the absence of viable microorgnaisms

40
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germicide is best defined as a material which...
a) kills bacteria
b) kills viable microorganisms, including their spores
c) kills microorganisms but not necessarily their spores
d) kills viruses

c) kills microorganisms but not necessarily their spores

41
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the quality of air in a laminar air flow workspace (LAFW) should be class 100. what does class 100 mean
a) no more than 1000 particles size 100 microns or larger per cubic feet
b) no more than 100 particles size 0.5 microns or larger per cubic feet
c) no more than 100 particles size 0.1 microns or larger per cubic feet

b) no more than 100 particles size 0.5 microns or larger per cubic feet

42
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a HEPA filter is a filter that can remove at least ____% of airborne particles as small as ___ micrometers (µm)

a) 99.95; 0.1

b) 99.97; 0.3

c) 95.99; 0.5

d) 95.99; 0.1

b) 99.97; 0.3

43
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LAWHs are located in the...
a) buffer room
b) anteroom
c) compounding room
d) sterilized room

a) buffer room

44
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what is the volume range for small volume parenterals (SVP)?
a) <1000 mL
b) 100-1000
c) <100 mL
d) >100 mL

c) <100 mL

45
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what is the volume range for large volume parenterals (LVP)?
a) >100 mL
b) <100 mL
c) 100-1000 mL
d) <1000 mL

c) 100-1000 mL

46
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what are the 3 types of intermittent administrations

1. direct intravenous injection
(directly injected into vein over short period of time)
2. volume-control method
(volume control sets consists of calibrated plastic chamber under primary IV container)
3. piggyback method
(second drug solution that drips intermittently through the venipuncture site)

47
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what are the 4 types of syringe tips

leur-lok tip
regular leur
eccentric tip
catheter tip

48
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this type of needle does not lock in place so a disadvantage is that the needle may pop off from the syringe
a) leur-lok tip
b) regular leur
c) eccentric tip
d) catheter tip

b) regular leur

49
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what is the use of the winged/butterfly needle

wings are used to make the venipuncture then they are taped to the patient to keep the needle secure in place

50
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atomic number is symbolized by the letter while mass number is symbolized by the letter

Z
A

51
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this type of needle has a tip that is placed off-center
a) leur-lok tip
b) regular leur
c) eccentric tip
d) catheter tip

c) eccentric tip

52
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list the components of an IV Administration Set

spike
drip chamber
clamp
tubing
injection site
needle adapter

53
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what is the method in which a second drug solution drips intermittedly through the venipuncture site of an established primary IV system

piggyback method

54
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T or F? in the piggyback method for IV administration, the small piggyback should be at a lower level compared to the primary set

false
(small piggyback should be at a higher level than the primary set)

55
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which of the following has the highest penetrating power?
a) alpha particle emission
b) beta particle emission
c) gamma ray emission

c) gamma ray emission

56
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radioactive decay is...

a process in which an unstable nucleus transforms into a more stable nucleus

57
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which of the following is/are electromagnetic radiation (select all that apply)
a) alpha particles
b) beta particles
c) gamma rays

c) gamma rays

58
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radioactive decay happens in...
a) the outermost orbital electrons
b) the nucleus
c) the protons and nucleus

b) the nucleus

59
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which of the following are valid units for radioactivity (select all that apply)
a) mCi
b) dps
c) rad
d) erg

a) mCi (mili Curie)
b) dps

60
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in which type of decay reaction does the product gain a proton
a) alpha particle emission
b) beta particle emission
c) gamma ray emission

b) beta particle emission

61
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the ______ is the size of the inside of a needle
a) gauge
b) bevel
c) lumen
d) cannula

c) lumen

62
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the bevel is...
a) the size of the inside of a needle
b) the size of the outside of a needle
c) the sharp angled tip of a needle
d) the length of the needle

c) the sharp angled tip of a needle

63
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an IM injection by in the gluteal area has a maximum volume of...
a) 1 mL
b) 2 mL
c) 0.5 mL
d) 5 mL

d) 5 mL

64
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an injection by ____ route in the _______ has a maximum volume of 2 mL

IM
deltoid

65
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what is the maximum volume of a subcutaneous injection

1 mL

66
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what is the maximum volume of a intradermal injection

0.5 mL

67
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for parental dosage forms, the size limit for subvisible particles is less than ___ microns

50

68
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which of the following are aqueous vehicles for parenterals (select all that apply)
a) sterilized water
b) ethyl alcohol
c) bacteriostatic water
d) sodium chloride
e) propylene glycol

a) sterilized water
c) bacteriostatic water
d) sodium chloride

69
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which of the following are water miscible vehicles for parenterals (select all that apply)
a) ethyl alcohol
b) bacteriostatic sodium chloride water
c) polyethylene glycol
d) sterile water

a) ethyl alcohol
c) polyethylene glycol

70
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diluting a water-soluble drug for parenterals with _______ vehicles as co-solubilizers may cause precipitation to occur
a) hydrophobic
b) non-aqueous
c) aqueous
d) water miscible

d) water miscible

71
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fixed vegetable oils used as non-aqueous vehicles are...
a) solid at room temperature
b) liquid at room temperature
c) liquid at temperatures below 20ºC
d) solid at temperatures above 30ºC

b) liquid at room temperature

72
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which of the following are preservatives that are frequently used in parenterals? (select all that apply)
a) phenol 0.5%
b) sodium sulfite 2%
c) methyl paraben 0.18%
d) propyl paraben 0.02%
e) ascorbic acid 1.2%

a) phenol 0.5%
c) methyl paraben 0.18%
d) propyl paraben 0.02%

73
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single-use containers for parenterals hold a volume of...
a) 100-1000 mL
b) <100 mL
c) up to 100 mL
d) up to 30 mL
e) 1-1000 mL

e) 1-1000 mL

74
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mutliple-dose containers for parenterals hold a volume of...
a) 100-1000 mL
b) <100 mL
c) up to 100 mL
d) up to 30 mL
e) 1-1000 mL

d) up to 30 mL

75
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microneedles are...

a type of transdermal patches with solid micron-sized needles intended to pierce the skin's upper layer to increase rate of penetration

76
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what advanced drug delivery system uses DNA testing and pharmacogenomics to predict whether a particular drug has higher response for a patient with unique genetics?

personalized medication

77
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drug eluting stents are...

small metal tubes coated in polymers that release medication onto artery walls in a narrowed vessel

78
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which of the following are TRUE of vesicular nanocarrier delivery systems (select all that apply)
a) made of lipid or surfactant bilayer structure
b) can only encapsulate hydrophobic compounds
c) can be engineered to target specific sites on the body
d) improves drug deliver by increasing solubility, stability, and bioavailablilty while decreasing systemic toxicity

a) made of lipid or surfactant bilayer structure
c) can be engineered to target specific sites on the body
d) improves drug deliver by increasing solubility, stability, and bioavailablilty while decreasing systemic toxicity

79
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which of the following best describes the use of nanosuspensions as a delivery system
a) used to enhance the shelf-life of hydrophobic drugs
b) used to enhance absorption of drugs in infants and neonates
c) used to enhance the delivery of drugs that are poorly soluble

c) used to enhance the delivery of drugs that are poorly soluble

80
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which of the following is TRUE regarding devices for glucose measurement and insulin release (select all that apply)
a) must be worn continuously
b) all components of a device are reusable
c) turn off machine properly before detaching from patient
d) insulin is always dispensed gradually over time

a) must be worn continuously
c) turn off machine properly before detaching from patient

81
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association colloids are...
a) amphiphilic molecules that form micelles at higher concentrations
b) amphiphilic molecules added to emulsions
c) dispersions formed in aqueous media
d) mixtures of two immiscible liquids that do not mix

a) amphiphilic molecules that form micelles at higher concentrations

82
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as the concentration of amphiphilic molecules increases in a solution, surface tension [increases/decreases]

decreases

83
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as the concentration of amphiphilic molecules increases in a solution, interfacial tension [increases/decreases]

decreases

84
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as the concentration of amphiphilic molecules increases in a solution, solubility [increases/decreases]

increases

85
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an emulsion consists of which 3 components

oil
water
surface active agent (surfactant)

86
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in an oil-in-water emulsion, which is the continuous phase and which is the dispersed phase

water is continuous phase
oil is dispersed phase

87
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you conducted a conductivity test to determine the type of emulsion you have and results showed that conductivity of the emulsion is high. what type of emulsion do you likely have?
a) o/w
b) w/o
c) o/w/o

a) o/w

88
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dialysis is used to separate...
a) foreign particles
b) ionized particles
c) colloid particles
d) surface active agents

c) colloid particles

89
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emission by alpha decay results in a decrease by in atomic number (Z) by ___ units and atomic mass (A) by __ units

2
4

90
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in gamma ray decay, the nucleus gets rid of excess excitation energy by...

photo emission

91
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Tc-99m emits only gamma radiation and has a half-life of ___

6 hrs

92
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sodium iodide (I-131) emits both beta particles and gamma radiation and is used as a diagnostic for ______ function

thyroid

93
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common antioxidants for parenteral products

ascorbic acid
sodium bisulfite
sodium metabisulfite
tocopherols

94
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why are inert gases used when placing parenterals in a vial
a) to remove oxygen and prevent drug degradation
b) to prevent hydrolysis of the drug
c) to sterilize the contents of the vial

a) to remove oxygen and prevent drug degradation

95
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what is added to multiple-dose parenterals that isn't in single-use parenterals
a) chelating agents
b) antioxidants
c) preservatives
d) buffers

c) preservatives

96
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examples of fixed vegetable oils

corn oil
sesame oil
peanut oil
cottonseed oil

97
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gasping syndrome is...
a) a severe condition caused by air in IV fluids being administered
b) a condition in infants where the lungs do not produce enough surfactant, making it difficult to breath
c) a fatal condition caused by the injection of non-isotonic IV fluids
d) a fatal condition in neonates caused by preservatives in IV fluids

d) a fatal condition in neonates caused by preservatives in IV fluids

98
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dextrose injection for nutrition contains ____ of dextrose per 100 mL
a) 1g
b) 5g
c) 10g
d) 25g

b) 5g

99
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rapid administration of dextrose solutions may result in _______, as the body can only utilize dextrose at a rate of approximately ______
a) hypoglycemia; 0.25g/kg/hr
b) glycosuria; 0.5g/kg/hr
c) polydipsia; 1g/kg/hr
d) hemolysis; 0.5g/kg/hr

b) glycosuria; 0.5g/kg/hr

100
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which IV fluid is commonly used for rapid electrolyte replacement
a) D5W
b) lactated ringer's
c) mannitol 5%
d) 0.9% sodium chloride

d) 0.9% sodium chloride