Quizzes (Prep for Exams)

Which of the following barrier models do we NOT work with Osteopathically

Elastic

Physiological

Anatomical

Plastic

anatomical

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

1. Disease, osteopathically, is typically manifested by distinguishing signs and symptoms, and is a response to environmental factors, to specific infectious agents.

2. Obstructions, restrictions, or dysfunctions will impede the self-healing and self-regulating mechanisms of the body, resulting in decreased tissue health, which provides a breeding ground for disease.

3. Disease, osteopathically, is an obstruction to the inherent self-healing and self-regulating mechanisms of the body, mechanisms that are instilled by nature.

4. Osteopaths identify obstructions through motion testing and diagnosing structural abnormalities; Osteopathically, it is essential to have a thorough understanding of anatomy to ensure recognition from the normal to the abnormal.

Disease, osteopathically, is typically manifested by distinguishing signs and symptoms, and is a response to environmental factors, to specific infectious agents.

Which of the following best describes the term "ease".

1. The best way to assess soft tissue and bony structures

2. The elastic barrier

3. Relative palpable freedom of motion of an articulation or tissues

4. The static position of a joint

Relative palpable freedom of motion of an articulation or tissues

Select all that apply: What is true of osteopathy?

• Osteopathy uses manual therapy to stimulate the inherent mechanisms of the body

• Osteopathic treatment not only has the ability to "put out the fire" in the body that is il but can remediate, refurnish, maintain and prevent one's environment from causing future states of illness

• The osteopath aims to restore health to the patient rather than just eliminate symptoms of disease

• Osteopathy is the science of association in that it acknowledges, examines and determines the effects of the lesion but treats the cause

• Osteopathy separates the body into just muscles, just joints, just viscera or just nerves without a holistic perspective

• Because no two lesions are the same, no two osteopathic treatments are the same. Each patient receives a unique osteopathic treatment, founded on principles, that is appropriate for the patient's body

• Osteopathy uses manual therapy to stimulate the inherent mechanisms of the body

• Osteopathic treatment not only has the ability to "put out the fire" in the body that is il but can remediate, refurnish, maintain and prevent one's environment from causing future states of illness

• The osteopath aims to restore health to the patient rather than just eliminate symptoms of disease

• Osteopathy is the science of association in that it acknowledges, examines and determines the effects of the lesion but treats the cause

• Because no two lesions are the same, no two osteopathic treatments are the same. Each patient receives a unique osteopathic treatment, founded on principles, that is appropriate for the patient's body

Which of the following most accurately describes the acronym A.R.T.S.

1. Alignment, Restriction, Tissue/Texture/Sensorial

2. Asymmetry, Reconstitution, Tissue/Texture/Sensorial

3. Asymmetry, Restriction, Tissue/Texture, Sensorial

4. Asymmetry, Restriction, Tissue/Texture/Sympathetic

Asymmetry, Restriction, Tissue/Texture, Sensorial

T/F: Osteopathically, we work within the Physiological barrier.

True

Fill in the blank: “ The osteopath has his own symptomatology. He seeks the cause, removes the obstruction, and lets Nature's Remedy _______ be the doctor”

1. Chia seeds

2. Arterial Blood

3. Sensation

4. Osteopathic treatment

5. None of the above

Arterial Blood

Which of the following best describes a short lever

1. Movement used for a sustained period of time

2. Movement of tissue caused by the operator directly on the structure

3. Movement used for a brief period of time

4. Movement of tissue caused by the operator through the use of a different structure

Movement of tissue caused by the operator directly on the structure

10. What does the term barrier refer to?

1. The movements available before pain is felt

2. A restriction of movement in neurological planes and axis

3. The bony end feel of a joint

4. The patients willingness to move a structure

A restriction of movement in neurological planes and axis

11. Which of the following is the correct pairing regarding planes and axis?

Coronal Plane / Longitudinal Axis

Sagittal Plane / Transverse Axis

Sagittal Plane / Vertical Axis

Coronal Plane / Transverse Axis

Sagittal Plane / Transverse Axis

How does the osteopathic perspective on disease differ?

• The osteopaths object is to find the health, anyone can fine disease

• The osteopathic perspective on disease; in fact, it focuses not on disease but on health. Osteopathy involves revitalizing areas where health is obstructed

• Modern forms of healthcare have become sciences of disease because they focus not on the vitality or inherent health of the patient, but on pathological signs and symptoms, which are then categorized so that a precedent treatment can be administered to alleviate the symptoms

• All the above

• None of the above 

All the above

Which of the following statement is FALSE 

• The force of an object is dictated by the relationship between its mass and the gravitational pull applied to it

• The motion of substances is predictable based on their concentration as well as the space allotted to  them 

• The world around us is NOT governed by the principles of natural law

• Structures are designed in a way to perform a specific function, such as in tensile strength or aerodynamics

The world around us is NOT governed by the principles of natural law

In a lengthened posterior line, which structures would be on tension from superficial to deep?

– erector spinae

– quadratus lumborum

– rib 12

– thoracolumbar fascia

1– thoracolumbar fascia

2 – erector spinae

3 – quadratus lumborum

4 – rib 12

Based on the above photo, which statement is correct?

1. The anterior line is off tension 

2. The right anterior diagonal line is on tension

3. The left anterior diagonal line is on tension

4. The left anterior diagonal line is off tension 

The left anterior diagonal line is on tension

Select all that are attachments to Psoas major 

•  Pectineal line and iliopubic eminence

• Transverse processes of L1-L5

• Lesser trochanter of the femur 

• Anteriolateral aspects of the bodies of T12-L5

• Greater trochanter of the femur 

• Transverse processes of L1-L5

• Lesser trochanter of the femur 

• Anteriolateral aspects of the bodies of T12-L5

 In the supine position, as the patient’s right leg is brought into flexion in the sagittal plane, which of the following mechanics are we expecting in the lumbar spine?

1. Opening of the facets on the left side and rotation to the right

2. Closing of the facets on the left and rotation to the left

3. Closing of the facets on the left side and rotation to the right

4. Opening facets on the right and rotation to the left

Closing of the facets on the left side and rotation to the right

T/F: The anterior longitudinal ligament prevents the spine from moving too far into flexion

False (the PLL does)

Which statement is most correct regarding respiration?

1. During inhalation the diaphragm descends and the anterior sides of the ribs move inferiorly

2. During inhalation the diaphragm ascends and the anterior sides of the ribs move inferiorly

3. During exhalation the diaphragm ascends and the posterior side of the ribs move superiorly

4. During inhalation the diaphragm descends and the posterior side of the ribs move inferiorly

During inhalation the diaphragm descends and the posterior side of the ribs move inferiorly

1.The picture above shows applications of the prone leg rotation.

   Select all that apply to this application 

• Operator is using long leverage

• The sacroiliac joint [SIJ] would be opening as the leg is brought off midline

• The coxofemoral joint [CFJ] would br externally rotation 

• Operator is using short leverage 

• Operator is using long leverage

• The sacroiliac joint [SIJ] would be opening as the leg is brought off midline

The rule of 3’s helps you landmark thoracic vertebrae. According to this rule, where would you find the spinous process of T10 in relation to its transverse processes?

1. Half a segment below the transverse process

2. One whole segment below the transverse processes

3. In line with their transverse processes

4. There are no transverse processes of T10, this question is a trick!

One whole segment below the transverse processes

Prone oscillation is utilized for a variety of reasons. Select all that apply.

1. Movement of fluid

2. Integration 

3. Appealing to the nervous system through mechanoreceptors

4. Inhibition of the celiac plexus

5. All of the above

All of the above

From your understanding of facet mechanics, with your patient in the supine position and utilizing a patient active long lever approach, what would be most effective in causing a bilateral facet opening in the lumbar spine?

1. Have the patient bring their arm over their head to close the thoracic facets and open the lumbar facets

2. Externally rotating the coxofemoral joint to ease the tension on psoas, allowing the lumbar spine to drop into flexion

3. Push on the abdominal area to induce a flexion in the lumbar spine

4. Have the patient draw their knees towards their chest 

Have the patient draw their knees towards their chest

During inhalation the thoracic spine moves towards ______ and the lumbar spine moves towards _______. 

Extension / Flexion

What is the primary movement of the sacrum?

1. Nutation and counter nutation

2. Sidebending 

3. Rotation

4. Elevation and depression 

Nutation and counter nutation

Which of the following GOT assessments are all specific to the coronal plane?

• Arm arcing in the seated position

• Cardinal arm movement 2

• Upper rib assessment

• Patient active rotation in the seated position

• Seated walk around

• Supine leg arcing

• Seated walk away

• Cardinal arm movement 3

Arm arcing in the seated position

Cardinal arm movement 2

Supine leg arcing

Seated walk away

Which of the following is a physiological movement of the innominate?

Outflare

Upslip

Posterior rotation

Inflare.

Posterior rotation

The primary motion mechanic of the lumbar moves in the ______ plane about the ______ axis?

1. coronal/transverse

2. sagittal/anterior posterior

3. coronal/ anterior posterior 

4. sagittal/transverse 

sagittal/transverse

What is the primary motion of the sacrum

1. Counternutation (sacral ext) 

2. Nutation (sacral flex)

3. Flexion 

4. Extension

5. All of the above 

All of the above

During the leg rotation which muscles are on tension during hip extension?

1. Abdominals 

2. Erector spinae

3. Quadratus lumborum

4. Quadratus femoris 

Abdominals

The primary curves of the spine are:

Sacral and lumbar

Cervical and lumbar

Thoracic and sacral

Cervical and thoracic

Thoracic and sacral

According to the rule of 3’s. The spinous process of T3 will be in line with which of the below TVPs?

1. T5

2. T3

3. T4

4. T2

T3

During the 2nd cardinal arm movement, which muscles are on tension during shoulder depression? 

1. Pectoralis minor 

2. Lower trapezius 

3. Scalene posterior 

4. Serratus anterior 

Scalene posterior 

When performing leg rotation (hip flexion) which hip ligaments go on tension? 

1. Rectofemoral 

2. Ischiofemoral (posterior ligament)

3. Pubofemoral 

4. Iliofemoral (anterior)

Ischiofemoral

Osteopathically, we look at the acronym ARTS, Which of the following is not considered to be part of that? 

1. Asymmetry 

2. Restriction

3. Tissue/ texture changes 

4. Symptoms 

5. Sensorial Changes 

Symptoms

T/F: In Osteopathy we name things for what they like to do

True

What is the direction of force when applying the oscillations in prone position?

1. Force is applied to the ASIS on the contralateral side

2. Force is applied to the PSIS to the same side

3. Force is applied to the ASIS to the same side

4. None of the above

Force is applied to the ASIS on the contralateral side

Which of the following is not considered to be a transition zone in the spine?

1. C7-T1

2. T11-12

3. L5-S1

4. T8-T9

T8-T9

T/F: When arching a patient's leg, a restriction is noted going towards the patient's left. Looking at the global lines, the left lateral line is short.

False (the right lateral line is short as tension builds on the opposite side relative to the direction the operator is going)

What structure is on tension with a declinated upper T-line? 

1. Brachial Plexus 

2. Cervical Plexus 

3. Common Carotid Artery 

4. All of the Above 

All of the Above

Order the tissues going into tension in the image shown from superficial to deep

1. Superficial axillary fascia  =

2. Latissimus dorsi =

3. Innermost intercostal muscle =

4. Internal intercostal muscle =

5. External intercostal muscle =

6. Serratus anterior =

7. Endothoracic fascia =   

Superficial axillary fascia  = 1

Latissimus dorsi = 2

Serratus anterior = 3

External intercostal muscle = 4

Internal intercostal muscle = 5

Innermost intercostal muscle = 6

Endothoracic fascia =   7

T/F: The cervical vertebrae 3 through 7 are typical bifid 

Answer: True (I selected false and that was wrong) 

The principles of MFR include the following: 

1. Compress and hold

2. Heat and creep

3. Stretch and contract

4. Fold and hold 

Heat and creep

T/F: The Anterior Superior Iliac Spine is an important bony landmark on the anterior ilium. It acts as the attachment point of the rectus femoris

False - it’s AIIS

What are the palpable characteristics of muscles?

1. Can be in relaxed or contracted state

2. They have a striated texture

3. The fibre direction may be used to identify the specific muscle

4. All of the above

All of the above

T/F: The anterior boarder of the tibia is well covered by the tibialis anterior and is therefore difficult to palpate.

False

This bone articulates with the medial cuneiform and the talus

1. Navicular

2. Lateral cuneiform

3. Calaneus

4. Cuboid

Navicular

The structure is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal leg and moves with eversion of the foot

1. Tibia

2. Fibular head

3. Lateral malleolus

4. Tibial tuberosity

Fibular head

The medial malleolus is the distal end of which bone?

1. Femur

2. Fibula

3. Tibia

4. Calcaneus 

Tibia

 The patella can be used as a landmark to locate 

1. The patellar ligament 

2. The vastus medialis 

3. the epicondyles of the distal femur 

4. All of the above 

All of the above 

Which of the following relations are correct? 

1. Jugular notch - same as level T4

2. Xiphoid process - same level as T8

3. None of the above

4. Sternal angle - same level at T2

None of the above

Inferior to the clavicle and lateral to the manubrium you will find the cartilage of which rib? 

1. Third

2. Second

3. This is a trick question there is no cartilage located in this area

4. First 

First

1. A 16 year old boy suffered from a left humerus fracture when playing soccer. In the ER, the patient’s X-ray showed a non-displaced humeral fracture. The patient’s left arm was immobilized and a cast was applied. 5-6 months later, the follow-up X-ray showed a healed fracture at the fracture site. Which cell is responsible for bone remodeling and compact bone formation? 

   1. Chondrocytes

   2. Osteoblasts

   3. Fibroblasts

   4. Osteoclasts

Osteoclasts

1. A 65-year old woman weighs 60kg and is 5 feet 3inches tall and presents to you with mild low back pain. During history, she tells you that she used to be 5 feet 6 inches tall but with time her height has regressed. On examination, her belly is soft and no tenderness is found in the low back. On examination, you notice the patient has kyphosis in the upper back area. What is the most probable cause of the patient’s change in height and kyphosis in the upper back? 

   1. Muscle spasm contributing to kyphosis

   2. It is normal part of the aging process

   3. Accessory nerve paresis contributing to shrugging of the shoulders

   4. Cancer of the vertebral bodies in upper back 

It is normal part of the aging process

Which of the following is not a function of PTH? 

1. It reduces the loss of calcium in urine 

2. It stimulates the activity of osteoblasts and facilitates calcium deposition in the bone matrix

3. It promotes the release of calcium from the bone matrix

4. It increases the calcium absorption at the gastrointestinal tract

It stimulates the activity of osteoblasts and facilitates calcium deposition in the bone matrix

A 73 year old woman has osteoporosis and presents in the ER with a fractured head of femur. The lab work shows normal calcium levels. Which hormone is mainly responsible for calcium mobilization from bone matrix?

1. Cortison

2. Growth hormone

3. Calcitronin

4. Parathyroid hormone 

Parathyroid hormone

What are the 3 bones that are ossified through intramembranous ossification?

1. Femur, humerus, radius

2. Skull bones, mandible, Clavicle 

3. Humerus, skull and femur 

4. Skull bones, humerus and tibia 

Skull bones, mandible, Clavicle 

Which of the following phenomena is true during the contraction process?

1. 2 Z discs moves away from each other

2. Myosin is released from Actin due to de-phosphorylation of ATP

3. Widening of the light zone 

4. 2 Z discs approach closer to each other 

2 Z discs approach closer to each other

The muscle spindle fibre monitors the length of the muscle whereas the golgi tendon organ monitors the:

1. Tension - or force of the muscle 

2. Compression

3. Length

4. Joint position 

Tension

The protein that attaches the myosin filament to the Z line is:

1. CapZ

2. Tendon

3. Actin

4. Titin

Titin

On contraction, the skeletal muscles are able to create mechanical movement as well as… 

1. Fluid movement in multiple systems

2. Digestive enzyme production

3. Cellular proliferation in all systems

4. All of the above

Fluid movement in multiple systems

The binding of calcium with troponin is followed by which step?

1. Splitting of ATP to ADP + Pi by myosin, which detaches and returns myosin to its active state

2. Z discs come closer together and the sarcomere shortens

3. Removal of tropomyosin from the myosin binding site on actin 

4. Dephosphorylation of ATP to ADP during the power stroke 

Removal of tropomyosin from the myosin binding site on actin

 Which of the following phenomena is true during the contraction process?

1. Narrowing of the I band

2. Myosin is released from the Actin due to de-phosphorylation of ATP

3. Widening of the light zone 

4. Disappearance of the M-line

Narrowing of the I band

The osteocyte is the mature form of the 

1. Osteophil

2. Osteoclast

3. Osteoblast

4. Collagen Fiber

Osteoblast

A 5 year old child is brought to ER for a fracture of the right femur. The fracture was managed non-surgically with cast and immobilization. On examination doctor also notices that the patient has bowed legs, deformity of the chest and ribs (pigeon chest) and skull bones. The doctor suspects deficient calcium deposition in the bone due to vitamin D deficiency. What is the possible diagnosis of patient's findings on the examination?

1. Osteomalacia

2. Osteoporosis

3. Osteomyelitis

4. 
Rickets


Rickets

 A 59 year old man presents to his family physician for a drooping right eyelid. The patient reported he has a new cough, which started 2 months ago, and its progressively getting worse. The patient also reports dry mouth and difficulty swallowing. On examination, the patient’s right eyelid is dropping, his right pupil is smaller than the left pupil. His facial skin is dry. This patient has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for the last 20 years. What is the most probable cause of this patient’s symptoms? 

1. Cervical sympathetic chain damage due to lung cancer infiltration

2. Parasympathetic supply is damaged due to the lesion of the oculomotor nerve

3. Myasthenia gravis 

4. Congenital anomaly that is causing asymmetry of the pupils 

Cervical sympathetic chain damage due to lung cancer infiltration

A 27 year old woman suffers from dyspareunia (pain during sexual intercourse). She experiences less pain if she uses exogenous lubricants. She has no history of pelvic inflammatory disease, uterine instrumentation such as intrauterine devices, or surgical procedures. She does not have vaginal discharge and her body temperature is normal. The abdominal examination is normal. What is the possible cause of her painful sexual intercourse? 

1. Sympathetic supply to genitals and accessory glands is affected 

2. Parasympathetic supply to genitals and accessory glands is affected 

3. Nothing is wrong, her problem is psychological 

4. She has multiple sexual partners

Parasympathetic supply to genitals and accessory glands is affected 

A 28-year old man suffers with peptic ulcer disease. Doctors have tried all sorts of medical treatments, such as proton pump inhibitors, antihistamines, and prophylaxis for H-pylori but nothing has worked for him. His doctor suggested surgery might help to cure him. What important structures/nerve transaction will be helpful to manage this patient’s peptic ulcer disease? 

1. Branches of T6-T10 spinal nerves in the region of the stomach

2. His problem cannot be treated with surgery

3. Branches of the phrenic nerve

4. Branches of the vagus nerve 

Branches of the vagus nerve

A 31 year old man suffers with peptic ulcer disease (stomach ulcers). After all treatments failed to cure the ulcers, his doctor advised surgical removal of the gastric branches of the vagus nerve. What is the possible explanation that surgical removal will help to cure peptic ulcer disease?

• Decrease parasympathetic supply will reduce the acid secretion/production

• Decrease parasympathetic supply will reduce the production of intrinsic factor

• Decrease parasympathetic supply will reduce the iron absorption from the stomach as iron is toxic for stomach mucosa

• Exact mechanism is unknown but for sure we know that surgical transaction of gastric branches of the vagus nerve cures ulcer disease

Decrease parasympathetic supply will reduce the acid secretion/production

A 23 year old man suffers from exercise-induced asthma. His family physician prescribes a salbutamol (ventolin) inhaler and advises the patient to use it before and after exercise/sports. What is the possible mechanism that this drug (ventolin) is supposed to use to function? (HINT: Please don't get confused by the drug name, just focus on the mechanism that we discussed in the class)

• Drug will act on the Beta 2 (B2) receptors, which will cause bronchial dilation

• Drug will act on the Beta 1(B1) receptors, which will cause bronchial dilation

• Drug will act on the Alpha 2 (a2) receptors, which will cause bronchial dilation

• Drug will act on the Alpha 1 (a1) receptors, which will cause bronchial dilation

Drug will act on the Beta 2 (B2) receptors, which will cause bronchial dilation

A 21 year old woman was brought to the ER for preterm labour. She was 32 weeks pregnant. The on-call obstetrician orders steroids for fetal lung maturity. The doctor also ordered Ritrodine to slow down the uterine contractions. What is the possible mechanism that this drug [ritrodine] is supposed to use in its function? [focus on the mechanism and receptors discussed in class]

• Drug will act on the Alpha 2 [A2] receptors, which will inhibit the uterine contraction

• Drug will act on the Beta 1 [B1] receptors, which will inhibit the uterine contraction

• Drug will act on Beta 2 [B2] receptors, which will inhibit the uterine contraction

• Drug will act on the Alpha 1 [A1] receptors, which will inhibit the uterine contraction

Drug will act on Beta 2 [B2] receptors, which will inhibit the uterine contraction

The communication points between multiple nerves are called:

• Ganglia

• Synapse

• Axon

• Telencephalon

Ganglia

David, a 27 year old man is unable to keep a relationship for more than a few weeks. He suffers from erectile dysfunction. What is the possible cause for his erectile dysfunction?

• No reason to worry, everyone experiences erectile dysfunction

• He does not like his girlfriend

• Sympathetic supply to genitals is affected

• Parasympathetic supply to genitals is affected

Parasympathetic supply to genitals is affected

Which of the following is not a function of skeletal muscle?

1. Protection of organs and vessel

2. Peristalsis

3. Store nutrient reserves

4. Thermogenesis

Peristalsis