Microbio exam 2 combined: respiratory viruses, Microbio exam 2: hepatoviridae and retroviruses, arboviruses and hemorrhagic fevers, Microbio exam 2: GI viruses, Microbio exam 2: Herpes Viruses, Microbio exam 2: Fungus, Microbio exam 2: parasites

two important proteins on the influenza envelope are

1. neuraminidase

2. hemagglutinin

Neuraminidase are the

scissors

Hemagglutinin is the

anchor

The origin of the spike protein is

influenza

Once influenza is ready to bud, _______ separates it from human cells

neuraminidase

________ holds influenza to epithelial cells so it can enter and replicate

hemagglutinin

What are the parts of the influenza life cycle

1. viral entry

2. uncoating

3. viral replication

4. assembly and budding

5. viral release

Which influenza type is unlikely to be of any human consequence

C

Antigenic drift usually happens in influenza type

A

How do hypervirulent strains emerge

antigenic shift

Poor outcome predictors for influenza include

1. immunocompromised

2. chronic lung disease

3. obesity

4. pregnancy

Which type of pneumonia only happens secondary to flu

staph aureus

Which type of influenza testing is more sensitive

PCR

1 multiple choice option

Influenza is what type of virus

RNA, enveloped

Adenovirus is what type of virus

1. dsDNA

2. non-enveloped

What viruses typically cause the "common cold"

1. adenovirus

2. rhinovirus

What causes croup

Parainfluenza

Parainfluenza is what type of virus

1. ssRNA

2. enveloped

Adenovirus can be a cause of

conjunctivitis

RSV is what kind of virus

1. ssRNA

2. enveloped

When is RSV peak

fall and winter

Common cold is the most common presentation of RSV but in younger children it can cause

1. bronchiolitis

2. pneumonia

Risks for poor outcomes for RSV include

1. premature infants

2. less than 2 yo w/ CLD/heart disease

3. immunocompromised children

4. children with neuromuscular disorders

When is RSV most severe

children under 8 weeks

Which protein on RSV is for attachment to endothelial cells

attachment glycoprotein G

Which protein is required for RSV binding/fusion

pre-F

What term means the worsening of the immune system with age

immunosscenesence

RSV antigen/antibody testing is sensitive in _______ but not in ______

children, adults

Which RSV diagnostic shouldn't be used in young kids

PCR

Passive immunity for RSV can be given through

1. RSV IG

2. Palivizumab

Palivizumab targets

RSV F protein

When is Palivizumab given?

1. those born before 29 weeks gestation

2. infants with congenital heart disease

3. infants with chronic lung disease

What is the newer version of palivizumab

nirsevimab

RSV vaccine is approved for

1. adults over 60

2. pregnancy approved 32-36 weeks gestation

The family is metapneumovirus is

paromyxovirus

Metapneumovirus is what type of virus

1. ssRNA

2. enveloped

What virus may be linked to frequent, and somewhat severe RTI in patients with cancer

metapneumovirus

the family of enteroviruses is

Picornaviridae

enteroviruses are what type of viruses

1. sRNA

2. non-env

Coxsackie virus is a

non polio enterovirus

Another name for coxsackie virus is

hand foot and mouth disease

Select what is true about hand foot and mouth

1. 12-36 hour prodrome

2. resolution in 7-10 days

3. moderately infectious

4. rarely neurological symptoms

Which non polio enterovirus is responsible for severe respiratory illness and myelitis/flaccid paralysis

enterovirus D68

An important and serious side effect of enterovirus D68 is

flaccid paralysis (myelitis)

Coronavirus is what type of virus

1. sRNA

2. enveloped

MERS uses what receptor

DPP4

How is MERS transmitted

animal to human

SARS-COV-2 infection can result in

1. cytokine storm

2. hypercoagulability

3. macrothrombosis

4. endotheliopathy

5. microthrombosis

Variants of Covid result from

mutations of the spike protein

What labratory marker decreases in COVID

lymphocytes

Hepatoviridae invade cells of the

liver

t/f: viral hepatitis is always an acute infection

false

Although acute viral hepatitis can be asymptomatic or have non-specific viral symptoms, more specific symptoms include

1. jaundice

2. icterus

3. dark urine

4. clay colored stool

Chronic viral hepatitis infection is usually

asymptomatic

Hepatitis A is what type of virus

RNA

Hepatitis A is _________ due to its ______

strongly resistant to inactivation, capsid

Hepatitis A has heavy viral shedding for ______ before symptoms appear

10 days

How many serotypes of Hepatitis A are there? What are the implications of this

1; able to develop a vaccine

hepatitis A is transmitted through

food/water

t/f: hepatitis A is usually self limiting and non life threatening

true

HBV is what type of virus

DNA

Why is HBV not curable

DNA is incorporated into the hosts cccDNA

What determines someone's response to HBV

individual immune response

How is HBV transmitted

1. blood/body fluids

2. sexual contact

Positive for ________ indicated an HBV infection, positive for ______ indicates it is an acute infection as opposed to a chronic infection

HBsAg, IgM

The surface of antigen of HBV is

HBsAg

Chronic HBV is _______ but is

not curable, supressable

Chronic HBV has possibility to lead to

Cirrhosis

the fact that HCV remains cell associated and does not cause cell death means what

allows for persistent infection and chronic liver disease

Antibody to HCV is/is not protective

is not

1 multiple choice option

Which HCV is a curable disease

HCV

Which hepatoviridae does not cause chronic infection

HAV

2 multiple choice options

Lab diagnostics for HAV are

1. symptoms

2. anti-HAV IgM

Lab diagnostics for HBV are

1. symptoms

2. HBsAg

3. HBeAg

4. Anti-HBc IgM

Lab diagnostics for HCV are

1. symptoms

2. anti-HCV

3. HCV RNA

Retroviruses are

enveloped RNA viruses

HIV is a

retrovirus

HIV has an envelope surrounding a capsid that contains

1. 2 copies of RNA genome

2. multiple copies of reverse transcriptase

3. integrase

4. cellular transfer RNA

The first step of HIV replication

binds to CD4 cells using coreceptor CCR5

In HIV, genomic _____ is converted to linear _____ by __________

RNA, DNA, reverse transcriptase

After HIV RNA is converted to DNA it is incorporated into the host chromosome via

integrase

HIV infection leads to

decreased CD4 T cells

CD4 destruction in HIV results in

1. direct HIV-induced cytolysis

2. cytotoxic T-cell induced immune cytolysis

3. pyroptosis (inflammed cell suicide)

Other than CD4 t cells, what other cells serve as reservoirs and distribution of HIV

1. macrophages

2. hematopoetic stem cells

What is used for the initial screening of HIV

1. ELISA

2. rapid oral antibody testing

What is used for confirming HIV

western blot analysis

Branched chain PCR can be used to _________ HIV

quantify

What is measured to track disease progression of HIV

1. CD4 t-cell counts

2. CD4:CD8 ratio

Which of the following are known routes of HIV transmission

1. blood

2. sexual transmission

3. perinatal transmission

t/f: close personal contact, household members, and healthcare workers not exposed to blood can transmit HIV

false

1 multiple choice option

What does HIV develop into

AIDS

When does HIV become AIDS

1. CD4 count less than 200 mm3

2. AIDS defining illness

Is there a cure for HIV

no, requires lifelong treatment

What is a disease vector

agent that carries and transmits an infectious pathogen to another living organism

What are Arboviruses transmitted by

1. mosquitos

2. ticks

3. other anthropods

Select mosquito prevention strategies

1. repellant

2. protective clothing/netting

3. avoid peak biting hours

4. keep mosquitos from laying eggs nearby

Ebola virus is what type of virus

1. RNA

2. enveloped

Where does ebola virus replicate

1. endothelial cells

2. monocytes

3. macrophages

What virus presents as a flu like illness that progresses to headache and myalgia, nausea and vomiting in days, hemorrhage from multiple sites, and has a 40-90% mortality rate

Ebola

What is used to diagnose ebola

Antigen/RNA testing in a specialized lab