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87 Terms

1
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Which microbiology pioneer helped to develop a series of postulates used to characterize the causative agent of a particular disease?

Robert Koch

2
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Which cell type contains membrane-bound cellular organelles and has a cell wall made up of chitin?

Fungi

3
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Which field of microbiology involves the relationships between domesticated plants and animals?​

Agricultural Microbiology

4
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Algae belong to the ___ category of microorganisms.

eukaryotes

5
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An ___ would be involved in studying the effects of a specific microorganism’s impact on the rainforest.​

environmental microbiologist

6
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An ___ microbiologist would safeguard the water supply in a particular area.​

industrial

7
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An ___ would study the body’s defenses against different disease-causing microbes.

immunologist

8
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Ignaz Semmelweis required medical students to ___ in order to protect mothers giving birth.​

wash their hands​

9
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What area of microbiology utilizes biotechnology to ensure the safety of food and water resources?​​

Industrial Microbiology

10
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What would a medical microbiologist do?

Examine factors that cause microorganisms to cause disease

11
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Which are true about taxonomy?

Taxonomy was developed by Carl von Linne (Linnaeus)​.

Taxonomy is the science of classifying living organisms into categories.

12
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Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish what?

A specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.

13
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___ are prokaryotes that have cell walls made of peptidoglycan​.

Bacteria

14
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___ are invertebrate worm-like animals.​

Helminths

15
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___ are acellular obligatory parasites that can infect all organisms.​

Viruses

16
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___ are unicellular, eukaryotic organisms with a complex structure.

Protozoa

17
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This 17th-century Dutch merchant made the first microscope with a magnification of approximately 300x.

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek 

18
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Which best defines culture media in microbiology?

A mixture that provides essential nutrients for cultivating microorganisms

19
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What is the purpose of staining?

Increases contrast 

20
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What type of microscopy would use stains to aid in observing microbes against an illuminated background?​

Bright-field

21
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Which microscope parts allow for the magnification of the specimen?​

Ocular lens

Objective lens

22
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Which molecule serves as the genetic blueprint and carries instructions for protein synthesis in cells?

DNA

23
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Which term refers to a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence of a gene, potentially leading to changes in protein structure and function?

Mutation

24
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During which cellular process is the genetic information encoded in DNA copied into a complementary RNA molecule?

DNA transcription

25
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In translation, what type of molecule carries the amino acids to the ribosome for incorporation into a growing protein chain?

Transfer RNA

26
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The pathway of gene expression is known as what?

Central dogma

27
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Which statement accurately describes the roles of DNA and RNA in cells?

DNA carries genetic information and serves as a template for RNA synthesis; this new RNA then guides protein production.​

28
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Which are mechanisms of bacterial horizontal gene transfer?


Transposable elements​

Transduction

Conjugation

29
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Which type of mutation is most likely to result in the premature termination of protein synthesis, leading to a shortened and nonfunctional protein?​

Nonsense

30
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Which best describes horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?​

The process by which genes are transferred between different bacterial cells.​

31
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A silent mutation occurs during replication, leading to a change in a DNA base pair. How is the effect of this mutation on the resulting protein best characterized?

The protein’s structure remains unchanged and its function is unaltered.​

32
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Which is a general term used to describe an agent that causes mutations in a DNA sequence?​

Mutagens

33
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Which organisms are classified as prokaryotes?

Bacteria and archaea

34
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Which are found in bacterial inclusion bodies?​

Glycogen

35
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Which group of microorganisms is known for producing methane gas as a metabolic byproduct?​

Methanogens

36
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Which characteristics differentiate Gram-negative from Gram-positive bacteria?


Higher pathogenicity due to endotoxins​

Presence of lipopolysaccharide in the cell envelope

Thin peptidoglycan layer​

37
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What is the primary function of bacterial fimbriae?​

Attachment to surfaces

38
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What is the key difference between archaea and bacteria regarding their cell wall structure?​

Archaeal cell walls lack peptidoglycan.​

39
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What is an organism that grows in lower pH conditions called?

Acidophile

40
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Which term describes a microorganism that obtains nutrients by decomposing dead organic matter in its environment?​

Saprobe

41
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Organisms that use inorganic carbon sources (such as carbon dioxide) are known as

autotrophs

42
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Organisms that use organic carbon sources (such as glucose) are known as

heterotrophs

43
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What is the term for microorganisms that can withstand brief exposure to elevated temperatures?​

Thermoduric

44
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Which growth phase requires cells to go through a period of adjustment, enlargement, and synthesis?​

Lag phase

45
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What type of microorganism obtains energy and carbon by breaking down organic molecules?

Chemoheterotroph

46
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During which phase of microbial growth do microorganisms experience rapid and continuous cell division, doubling the population with each generation?​

Exponential growth phase​

47
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What is the main difference between a saprobe and a parasite?

A saprobe derives nutrients from dead plants and animals, but a parasite derives nutrients from living plants and animals.

48
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What term for microbial growth represents the time it takes for a population of microorganisms to double in number under optimal growth conditions?​

Generation time​

49
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Which best describes enzymes?​

Proteins that act as biological catalysts

50
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What term describes an enzyme's complete and functional form, consisting of its protein components and any necessary non-protein molecules, such as coenzymes or cofactors?

Holoenzyme

51
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In cellular metabolism, which inhibitory mechanism involves a chemical binding to a regulatory site to change the shape of the active site?​

Noncompetitive inhibition 

52
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What mimics the shape of the substrate?

Competitive inhibitors

53
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What term refers to the protein component of an enzyme without its associated cofactors or coenzymes?​

Apoenzyme

54
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What fundamental role do enzymes play in chemical reactions within living organisms?​

They decrease the activation energy.​

55
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What is the term used to describe the reactions which break down larger macromolecules into simpler molecules within a cell?

Catabolism

56
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In microbial metabolism, what is the net gain of ATP produced directly through substrate-level phosphorylation in a single turn of the Krebs cycle (also known as the citric acid cycle)?​

2 ATP

57
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Glycolysis occurs in the ___ for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

cytoplasm

58
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The electron transport system is located in the ___ in prokaryotes, while it occurs in the ___ in eukaryotes.​

cell membrane

mitochondria

59
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In the context of metabolism, which process involves the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones, requiring an input of energy?​

Anabolism

60
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Swabbing the skin with an alcohol prep pad prior to injection is an example of:

Antisepsis

61
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Destruction of most microbial life, but often does not kill spore-forming bacteria

Disinfection

62
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Mechanical removal of most microbes from an animate or inanimate surface

Decontamination

63
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Prevents bacteria from multiplying and does not kill bacteria

Bacteristatic

64
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Destruction of all microbial life including endospores

Sterilization

65
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Destruction or growth inhibition of vegetative pathogens on body surfaces

Antisepsis

66
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Kills bacteria

Bactericide/Bactericidal 

67
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Which are the most resistant infectious organisms/particles?

Endospores

68
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What is the primary factor contributing to the development of antibiotic resistance among bacterial populations?​

Overuse of antibiotics​

69
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What process allows bacteria to acquire antibiotic-resistance genes from other bacteria, often through mechanisms like conjugation, transformation, or transduction?​

Horizontal gene transfer ​

70
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Which antimicrobials are effective against a wide variety of microbial types?

Broad-spectrum drugs

71
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Which term is used to describe the community of microorganisms that inhabit a specific environment, such as the human body, often living in symbiosis with the host?

Microbiota

72
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Which mode of disease transmission occurs from mother to child via the placenta or milk?

Vertical transmission​

73
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A condition in which pathogenic microorganisms penetrate host defenses, enter the tissues, and multiply.

Infection

74
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A description of the pathogenicity of a microbe based on its ability to establish itself in a host and cause damage.

Virulence

75
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A microbe that has a parasitic relationship with its host.

Pathogen

76
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The pathologic state that occurs when the infection damages tissues and organs.

Disease

77
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When an infection is localized at a specific site in the body and may serve as a source spreading to other tissues or organs, what is it called?​


Focal infection​

78
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What term describes insect vectors that carry microbes on their bodies?​

Mechanical vectors​

79
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In which pattern of infection does the pathogen spread throughout the body, affecting multiple organs and tissues, often leading to severe illness?​

Systemic infection​

80
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In the progression of infectious diseases, which stage is characterized by the appearance of mild, non-specific symptoms that often precede the full onset of the disease and may serve as an early warning sign?​

Prodromal

81
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What is the term for a toxin that is a component of the outer membrane of certain Gram-negative bacteria and is released when the bacteria are damaged or die, contributing to symptoms of infection?

Endotoxin

82
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What bacterial structure is known to protect pathogens from phagocytosis by host immune cells?​

Capsule

83
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After caring for a patient with an infectious disease, a healthcare worker touches and contaminates a doorknob. A colleague later touches the doorknob and then touches their face, leading to an infection. What term best describes the inanimate object that served as the intermediary in this transmission?​

Fomite

84
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When is an infectious disease classified as an endemic?

Cases occur frequently in one geographic location

85
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What is the study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population called?

Epidemiology

86
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When is an infectious disease outbreak classified as an epidemic?

There are more instances of a disease than expected.​

87
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How would an epidemiologist classify a scenario where several people develop food poisoning several hours after eating hamburgers at a barbecue?​

Point-source epidemic