microbiology 2 (copy)

1. Which enzyme is one of the most important and constant criteria for pathogenicity of staphylococcus aureus ?


1. beta lactamase
2. plasmakoagulase
3. catalase

1. plasmakoagulase

1. Bacillus cereus may cause?


1. Anthras
2. food poisoning


1. endocarditis

1. food poisoning

1. The main virulence factor of Neisseria meningitidis is?


1. The polysaccharide capsule
2. the beta lactamase
3. the erythrogenic toxin

1. The polysaccharide capsule

1. Elementary and reticular bodies are morphological ?


1. Mycoplasma genitalium
2. Chlamydia trachomatis
3. Rickettsia prowazekii

1. Chlamydia trachomatis

1. Which of the following pathogens can cause meningitis ?


1. Staph. aureus
2. Strep. pyogens
3. Strep. pneumoniae

1. Strep. pneumoniae

1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can cause:

a. Burn wounds infection, severe pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis,

nosocomial infections

7. The causative agent of the pertussis ( also known as whooping cough) morphologically appears as :


1. Gram positive bacillus
2. Gram negative coccobacillus
3. long Gram- negative rod shaped bacterium

1. long Gram- negative rod shaped bacterium

7. Leigonnelosis has the following clinical forms:


1. legionnaires disease and pontiac fever
2. skin and intestinal form
3. lymphatic, lung and intestinal forms

1. legionnaires disease and pontiac fever

7. Natural reservoirs of legionellae are:

a. water, soil, mud


2. only infected humans


1. infected animals and humans

a. water, soil, mud

10. Which of the following can be used for a specific prophylactic of pertussis:


1. pertussis toxoid
2. killed vaccine (Prophylaxe)
3. wide-spectrum antibiotics (tretament)

1. killed vaccine (Prophylaxe)

10. Which statements is NOT CORRECT: Treponema pallidum can be cultivated on:


1. artificial food media
2. cell lines
3. intratesticular n rabbits

1. artificial food media

10. The main factor in pathogenicity of diphtheria is:


1. the metachromatic bodies of ernst-babes
2. the strong endotoxin, released during the bacterial cell destruction
3. the strongest exotoxin which inhibtis the protein synthesis in host cells

1. the strongest exotoxin which inhibtis the protein synthesis in host cells

10. The sample used to proving epidemic meningitis is:

a. CSF transported at 37

b. Feces

c. CSF transported at +4

a. CSF transported at 37

14. Genus Rickettsia representatives are characterized by:


1. Gram-positive cell wall
2. High resistance to external environment factors


1. intracellular parasitism

1. intracellular parasitism

14. Salmonellosis is caused by:


1. salmonella typhi
2. salmonella enteritidis


1. shigella felxperi

1. salmonella enteritidis

14. Food poisoning can be caused by some strains if:


1. Staphylococcus epidermidis


1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

1. Staphylococcus aureus

14. Gas gangrene is caused by:


1. Clostridium difficile


1. Clostridium perfringens


1. Clostridium tetani

1. Clostridium perfringens

14. Which of the following pathogens can be transmitted through the placenta


1. Listeria monocytogenes
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

1. Listeria monocytogenes

20\. Which of the following statements regarding S. aureus is not true:


1. producing hemolysins, leucydines, enterotoxin
2. colonies with beta-hemolytic zones


1. always sensitive to penicillin

**always sensitive to penicillin -M**

21. Which of the following statements is not correct with the regard to Mycobacterium tuberculosis and/or the disease it caused?


1. The pathogen contains mycolic acid in the cell wall
2. the pathogen can be live intracellularly in macrophages
3. the antibodies formed are protective

1. the pathogen can be live intracellularly in macrophages

21. Corynebacterium diphtheriae in clinical specimen can be demonstrated by:


1. Ziel.Nielsen staining method
2. Anaerobic cultivation


1. Elecs Precipitation method

1. **Elecs Precipitation method**

21. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is acid resistant because of:


1. the high lipid content in their cell wall
2. the presence of brauns protein in their cell wall
3. the presence of protein capsule

1. the high lipid content in their cell wall

21. The toxin of clostridium botulinum


1. Blocks the release of inhibitory mediators in spinal synapses
2. Blocks the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter in the neuromuscular synapses
3. causes paralysis due to damage to anterior part of the spine

1. Blocks the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter in the neuromuscular synapses

21. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci) is an important cause of:


1. Neonatal sepsis and meningitis
2. Food toxiconfections


1. scarlet fever

1. Neonatal sepsis and meningitis

21. Mycoplasma pneumoniae differs to Rickettsia provazekii because of:


1. the presence of only one chromosome
2. prokaryotic cell organization


1. the lack of cell wall

1. the lack of cell wall

21. for enterotoxigenic stains of e. coli is true that:


1. can cause cholera-like diarrhea traveler's diarrhea
2. can lead to bacterial dysenterie
3. are part of the normal bacterial flora in GIT

1. can cause cholera-like diarrhea traveler's diarrhea

21. McConkey agar can be used to determine the ability of enteric bacteria to:


1. ferment lactose
2. ferment maltose
3. produce H25

1. ferment lactose

21. Which of the following statements is correct about the anthrax?


1. highly contagious


1. the skin and pulmonary form are caused by different strains of Bacillus anthracis
2. inhalation of spores can not be dangerous

1. the skin and pulmonary form are caused by different strains of Bacillus anthracis

30\. Specimen for assessment of lower respiratory tract infection is:


1. sputum
2. blood
3. nasopharyngeal washing

1. **sputum**

1. Which of the following statements pathogenesis of shigellosis is untrue


1. bacteremia during the course of the disease
2. invade epithelial cells of colon
3. bloody, mucoid diarrhea

1. bacteremia during the course of the disease

The causative agent of ornithosis is:


1. Chlamydophila pneumonia


1. Chlamydia psitacii
2. chlamydia trachomatis

1. **Chlamydia psitacii**

1. Susceptibility to bile salts and optochin can be used for identification of:


1. Streptococcus pyogenes


1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
2. Streptococcus epidermis

1. Streptococcus pneumoniae

4\. What kind of sample can be used during the second week of typhoid fever:

a. blood from hemoculture


2. blood for ab


1. Reves, urine, gallbladder and roseola materials

2. **Reves, urine, gallbladder and roseola materials**

5. The causative agent of tuberculosis is:


1. strict anaerobe
2. facultative anaerobe
3. strict aerobes

1. **strict aerobes -M**

5. The virulence factors for streptococcus peumoniae is:


1. an exotoxine
2. an endotoxine


1. capsular polysaccharides

1. **capsular polysaccharides -M**

5. the causative agents of gas gangrene are:


1. cocci
2. vibrons


1. anaerobic spore-forming bacteria

1. **anaerobic spore-forming bacteria -M**

5. Which of the following is a food-borne infection?


1. botulism
2. staphylococcal food intoxication
3. none

1. botulism -L

5. In cholera cases, what is the factor that ultimately leads to death of the host?

a. protein with toxic actin


2. dehydration and loss of electrolyte disbalance


1. the toxin produced by bacteria

2. **dehydration and loss of electrolyte disbalance -M**

\

Q-fever is caused by:


1. rickettsia conorii
2. rickettsia prowazekii


1. coxiella burnetii

1. **coxiella burnetii -M**

vector for Yersinia pestis (plague) transmission are:


1. lice


1. fleas
2. mosquitos

1. **fleas -M**

2\. Immunity after tuberculosis immunization is


1. infectious-nonsterile
2. antibacterial
3. antitoxic

1. infectious-nonsterile -L

13\. Which enzyme is responsible for the penicillin resistance of staphylococcus?


1. coagulation
2. fibrinolysin


1. beta-lactamase

1. **beta-lactamase - M**

14\. Listeria monocytogenes is:


1. gram negative cocci bacteria
2. encapsulated and sporulating bacilli


1. facultative intracaellular microorganism

1. **facultative intracellular microorganism -M**

15\. the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is:


1. streptococcus pneumoniae
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae


1. pseudomonas aeruginosa

1. **pseudomonas aeruginosa - glaube hatte die Antwort**

16\. Suitable materials for testing for chlamydia spp. are


1. conjunctival, prostatic and cervical samples
2. feces and skin lesions


1. csf and throat secretion

1. conjunctival, prostatic and cervical samples

17\. Listeriosis is


1. hospital acquired infection
2. rare transmissive infection antropozoonsis

1. **hospital acquired infection**

18\. diphtheria is:


1. leads to long lasting immunity after exposure
2. leads to short lasting immunity (less than 6 months) after disease
3. humans does not create immunity at all

1. **leads to long lasting immunity after exposure -M**

19\. for enteropathogenic e. coli true:


1. they attach to enterocytes and destroy microvillus
2. they are invasive and produce enterotoxin


1. c. cause disease clinically similar to bactilary

1. they attach to enterocytes and destroy microvillus ? -M L

20\. For diphtheria exotoxin is true that:


1. stays at the site of infection
2. blocks neuro-muscular transmission


1. is absorbed in the underlying healthy tissues and spreads throughout the

body

1. is absorbed in the underlying healthy tissues and spreads throughout the

body ( glaube c ist richtig ) -M,L

26\. Bacteria associated with hospital-acquired infections:


1. Streptococcus pneumoniae


1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. Vibrio cholerae

1. **Pseudomonas aeruginosa -M**

27. Streptococcus pyogenes releases:


1. enterotoxin


1. streptolysin
2. staphylocoagulase

1. **streptolysin - M (glaube)**

27. All are correct except:


1. Spotted fevers can be caused by Rickettsia mooseri and Rickettsia provazekii


1. The Q-fever is transmitted only after ticks bite
2. The mediterranean fever is present with maculopapular rash

1. **The Q-fever is transmitted only after ticks bite -M**

27. Listeria monocytogenes are:


1. Gram-negative rod-shaped bacteria
2. Gram-positive spherical bacteria


1. Gram-positive rod-shaped bacteria

1. **Gram-positive rod-shaped bacteria - M**

1. Bacteria causing bacillary dysentery can be isolated from the patient s blood:


1. there is no bacteremia


1. during the second week of illness
2. during the first week of illness

1. during the second week of illness

1. Which statement is correct? Yersinia pestis is causative agent of:

a. cholera
2. b. AIDS
3. c. plague

1. plague

1. bacteria that can cause tuberculosis in humans are:


1. myobacterium bovis
2. myobacterium tuberculosis


1. all answers are correct

1. all answers are correct

1. Which if the following food media can be used for cultivation of streptococcus pneumoniae?
2. blood agar
3. macConkey agar
4. peptone water

1. blood agar

5. Which of the following statements for genus klebsiella is correct?


1. they have real capsule and are non motile
2. they are obligatory anaerobic
3. they form spores only under aerobic conditions

1. they have real capsule and are non motile

5. Immunity after tuberculosis immunization is:

a. infections- nonsterile

b. antibacterial

c. antitoxic

a. infections- nonsterile

7. The causative agent of the bacterial dysentery belongs to which of the following

geneta?


1. genus shigella
2. genus salmonella
3. genus klebsiella

1. genus shigella

7. Pneumonia can be caused by


1. legionella pneumophila


1. mycoplasma pneumoniae
2. all answers are correct

1. mycoplasma pneumoniae

7. Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with nosocomial

infections


1. corynebacterium diphtheriae
2. shigella sonnei


1. pseudomonas aeruginosa

1. pseudomonas aeruginosa

7. Which statement about the epidemiology and specific prophylactic of haemophylus influenzae is NOT CORRECT


1. non encapsulated strains can be isolated from healthy carriers
2. there is effective killed vaccine, protective against all capsuar types of haemophylus spp.
3. the infection is air borne

1. non encapsulated strains can be isolated from healthy carriers


1. \

7. If skin-allergic samples for tuberculosis are negative


1. antibiotics are prescribed
2. tuberculin is introduced


1. a vaccine is administered

1. a vaccine is administered

7. listeria monocytogenes is


1. gram negative coccobacteria
2. encapsulated and sporulating bacili


1. the lack of cell wall

1. the lack of cell wall

7. Which one is correct?
8. for microbiological diagnosis of diphteria is is enough to identify the isolate as corynebacterium diphtheriae
9. corynebacterium diphtheriae cannot be stained via gram staining because of the small cell size


1. gram staining after culture on Loeffler's medium or tellurite containing containing medium will show typical chinese letter arrangement

1. gram staining after culture on Loeffler's medium or tellurite containing containing medium will show typical chinese letter arrangement

14\. infection caused by the genus candida can be successfully treated with:


1. penicillins
2. cephalosporins of third generation


1. nystatin

1. nystatin

15\. All the statements about pseudomonas aeruginosa are correct, EXCEPT:


1. it is a gram- neg. bacterium
2. it is oxidase- positiv


1. is is non motile and non sporeforming

1. is is non motile and non sporeforming

16\. For isolating of rickettsia the sample is investigated via:


1. skin- allergy tests
2. Elisa/immunflureszenz
3. chick embryos, cell cultures and lab animals

?

1\. The toxin of clostridium botulinum:


1. Blocks the release of inhibitory mediators in spinal synapses


1. Blocks the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter in the neuromuscular synapses
2. Causes paralysis due to damage to the anterior part of the spine

1. Blocks the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter in the neuromuscular synapses

Food poisoning can be caused by some strains of:


1. staphylococcus epidermis


1. staphylococcus aureus
2. staphylococcus saprophyticus

1. staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following statements regarding Listeria monocytogenes is true:


1. gram negative rod shape bacterium
2. cant be cultivated on culture media


1. listeriosis affects certain patient groups- pregnant women, newborns,

immunocompromised patients

1. listeriosis affects certain patient groups- pregnant women, newborns,

immunocompromised patients

Bacillus anthracis is:


1. gram positive, subterminal located spore, cell deformation
2. gram positive, terminal located spore, cell deformation


1. gram positive with central spore, the cell is not deformated

1. gram positive with central spore, the cell is not deformated

If skin- allergic samples for tuberculosis are negative:


1. antibiotics are prescribed
2. tuberculum is introduced


1. a vaccine is asministered

1. a vaccine is asministered

. Different media are used for:


1. facultative intercellular bacteria
2. spore forming bacteria


1. bacteria from family enterobacteriaceae

1. bacteria from family enterobacteriaceae

Which statement abot V. choleraa is not correct:


1. v. cholerae appears as a gram- negative curved bacteria


1. the main virulence factor is its exotoxine
2. v. cholerae invades the epithelium cells of the intestines and enters the bloodstream.

1. the main virulence factor is its exotoxine

Which is not correct for enteropathogenic escherichia coli:


1. the have invasive properties


1. the produce enterotoxin
2. they adhere to the enterocytes via fimbriae

1. the produce enterotoxin

Which statement is not correct: treponema pallidum can be cultivated on:


1. artificial food media
2. cell lines
3. intratesticilar in rabbits

1. artificial food media

10. Haemophilus influenza never causes:


1. meningitis
2. otitis media


1. enterocolitis

1. enterocolitis ,L

10. Yersinia pestis can successfully resist:


1. UV-light


1. low tempertaure
2. drying

1. low tempertaure

10. Natural reservoirs of legionellae are:


1. water, soil, mud
2. only infected humans
3. infected animals and humans

1. water, soil, mud D,L

13. Bacteria that can cause tuberculosis in humans are:


1. mycobacterium bovis
2. mycobacterium tuberculosis


1. all answers are correct

1. all answers are correct D,L

13. The causative agent of lobar/ croupous/ pneumonia:


1. mycoplasma pneumoniae
2. streptocuccous pneumoniaa
3. chlamidia pneumoniaa

1. ==streptocuccous== pneumoniaa D ,L

13. Which of the following characteristics are correct about tetanospasmin?


1. heat-labile
2. it can become a toxoid


1. all answers are correct

1. all answers are correct -L

immunoprophylaxis of tuberculosis is done via:


1. BCG Vaccine
2. tuberculin
3. tuberculostatic agents

1. BCG Vaccine

Susceptibility to bile salts and optochin can be used for identification of:


1. streptococcous pyogenes


1. streptococcous pneumoniae
2. staphylococcus epidermis

1. streptococcous pneumoniae D

18. Streptococcus pyogenes causes:


1. scarlet fever
2. genorrhea
3. food intoxication

1. scarlet fever

18. Food intoxication with staphylococcus aureus are related to production of:

a. hemolysin

b. endotoxin

c. enterotoxin

18. c. enterotoxin

18. Q- fever is caused by:


1. ricketsia conori
2. ricketsia prowazekii


1. coxiella burnetii

1. coxiella burnetii

21\. Which one is correct?


1. For microbiological diagnosis of diphtheria it is enough to identify the isolate as corynebacterium diphtheriaa
2. cornebacterium diphteriaa cannot be stained via gram staining becuase of the small cell size


1. gram staining after culture on loefflers medium or tellurite containing medium will show typical cinese letter arrangement

1. gram staining after culture on loefflers medium or tellurite containing medium will show typical cinese letter arrangement

22. spores of clostridium spp:


1. bacteria of closteridium spp are not spore forming
2. they dont deformate the vegatative cell


1. the deformate the shape of vegetative cell

1. the deformate the shape of vegetative cell

22. which of the following features is not typical for streptococcus pyogenes?


1. colonies with hemolytic and dimpled appearance


1. presence of protein i
2. beta hemolysis on blood agar

1. presence of protein i -L

22. Enterotoxigenic Escherihia coli cause:


1. travelers diarrhea
2. urinary infections
3. neonatal sepsis

1. travelers diarrhea

22. Black center colonies on apocholate- citrate agar/ ACA/ forms:


1. klebsiella spp.


1. salmonella spp.
2. esnherichia coli

1. salmonella spp.

22. Pseudomembranous colitis:


1. occurs after administration of broad spectrum antibiotics
2. is caused by gram- positive spore forming bacteria
3. all answers are correct

1. all answers are correct

27\. Which of the following statements for pathogenesis of shigellosis is untrue:


1. bacteriemia during the course of the disease
2. invade epitherlias cells of colon
3. bloody, mucoid diarrhea

1. bacteriemia during the course of the disease

28\. Genus Rickettsia representatives are characterized by:


1. gram- positive cell wall
2. high resistance to external environment factors


1. intracellular parasitism

1. intracellular parasitism

29. Genus Salmonella:


1. Can form spores


1. has flagella
2. are stained in blue- purple via Gram- staining protocol

1. has flagella

29. Acute glomeronephritis is a complication after infection cause by:


1. enterococcus faecalis


1. streptococcus pyogenes
2. streptococcus pneumoniae

1. streptococcus pyogenes

The causative agent of bacterial dysenterle is:


1. Escherichia coli
2. Salmonella typhi


1. Shigella sonnei

1. Shigella sonnei