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1
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Estrogen toxicity that results from prolonged estrus is a common clinical problem in which of the following species?
a) ferret
b) hamster
c) guinea pig
d) rabbit
Ferret
2
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Scurvy is most likely to be seen in what animal?
a) rabbit
b) guinea pig
c) gerbil
d) hamster
Guinea pig
3
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Sendai virus is a
a) paramyxovirus
b) reovirus
c) coronavirus
d) rotavirus
Paramyxovirus
4
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Tricobezoar can be common in which species?
a) non-human primates
b) rabbit
c) ferret
d) hamster
rabbit
5
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What is the earliest common clinical sign seen in ferrets or rabbits that are overheating?
a) sweating
b) panting
c) vocalizations
d) licking their front legs
Panting
6
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What is the name of the phenomenon seen in mice in which females bred within 4 days abort their litters if exposed to a strangle male?
a) whitten effect
b) this does NOT occur
c) bruce effect
d) aurora borealis effect
bruce effect
7
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Slobbers, or moist dermatitis, is a common condition that occurs in:
a) mice
b) guinea pigs
c) rabbits
d) rats
rabbits
8
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What anatomic structure is similar in rodents and horses?
a) gall bladder
b) large cecum
c) rumen
d) carnassial teeth
large cecum
9
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What occurs in an animal with pregnancy toxemia?
a) ketosis
b) hyperglycemia
c) hyperadrenocorticism
d) pyometra
ketosis
10
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Which of the following rodents has cheek pouches?
a) rat
b) gerbil
c) hamster
d) mouse
Hamster
11
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Animals in which certain disease-causing agents have been eliminated are:
a) conventional
b) specific-pathogen free
c) microbially defines
d) axenic
specific- pathogen free
12
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Ferrets are very susceptible to
a) feline rhinotracheitis
b) feline panleukopenia
c) canine hepatitis
d) canine distemper
canine distemper
13
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Pasteurellosis
a) is a gram-positive coccobacillus
b) is passed directly only
c) is eliminated once signs are displayed
can produce rhinitis, torticoliss, abscesses, and vaginal discharge
14
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Monitoring reflexes of the rabbit for anesthesia would include all of the following except:
a) palpebral
b) watching the 3rd and PLR
c) ear pinch
d) tail pinch
tail pinch
15
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You are asked to give a mouse fluids on recovery from anesthesia. The maximum amount of the warmed fluids that you should be giving IP at one dose is:
a) 2 -3 mL
b) 0.5-1 mL
c) 1-2 mL
d) 5-10 mL
2-3 mL
16
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An owner is concerned that a recently-lactating doe has abandoned her babies, when she looks into the nest, the young jump like popcorn.You tell her
a) provide more heat for the young
b) cross foster the young to another doe
c) not to worry as rabbits feed their young only once a day
d) start to feed them solid food
not to worry as rabbits feed their young only once a day
17
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What is the preferred ratio of daylight to darkness for most laboratory rodents?
a) 12:10
b) 10:14
c) 20:4
d) 12:12
12:12
18
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Snuffles in rabbits is most commonly caused by
a) bordetella sp
b) clostridium spiroforme
c) eimeria sp
d) pasteurella multicida
pasteurella multicida
19
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The type of caging system that provides rodents with excellent containment and protection from disease organism is:
a) shoebox
b) front-opening
c) mircoisolator
d) suspended
mircoisolator
20
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A healthy animal that is susceptible to certain diseases, and is placed in a room with other animals as a means of detecting those diseases is called what?
a) sentinel
b) transgenic
c) SCID
d) conventional
sentinel
21
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What is the usual life span of mice, rats and hamsters?
a) 3 years
b) 10 years
c) 1 year
d) 5 years
3 years
22
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A ferret presents for periodic hind end weakness and the veterinarian suspects insulinoma. If blood is drawn while the ferret is presenting with clinical signs, what laboratory result would most likely be found?
a) hypoglycemia
b) elevated serum estrogen
c) hyperkalemia
d) glucose in the urine
hypoglycemia
23
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Which species gives birth to large precocial young?
a) ferret
b) rabbit
c) guinea pig
d) hamster
guinea pig
24
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Which viral disease carried by hamsters and other rodents is zoonotic?
a) mycoplasmosis
b) lymphocytic choriomeningitis
c) mouse hepatitis
d) salmonelosis
lymphocytic choriomeningitis
25
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Which disease in the non-human primate is routinely tested for in the laboratory setting?
a) pasteurellosis
b) aspergillosis
c) tuberculosis
d) pollo
tuberculosis
26
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Which laboratory animal should be routinely vaccinated for rabies?
a) guinea pig
b) rabbit
c) hamster
d) ferret
ferret
27
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Trichobezoars are most common in which species?
a) hamster
b) rabbit
c) ferret
d) non-human primates
rabbit
28
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Where is blood most commonly collected from a rabbit?
a) tail
b) ear
c) orbit
d) heart
ear
29
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Snuffles in rabbits is caused by:
a) bordetella sp
b) clostridium spiroforme
c) eimeria sp
d) pasteurella multocida
pasteurella multocida
30
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Which is a common problem seen in young hamsters from a pet store?
a) red tears
b) constipation
c) diarrhea
d) vomiting
diarrhea
31
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A useful site for venipuncture in anesthetized mice is:
a) jugular
b) medial saphenous
c) retro-orbital
d) lateral saphenous
retro-orbital
32
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The sex of the juvenile mice is determined by:
a) behavioral traits
b) anogenital distance
c) secondary sex characteristics
d) palpation of the pelvic region
anogenital distace
33
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Seizures are an inherited condition most often seen in which species
a) hamster
b) rabbit
c) gerbil
d) mouse
gerbil
34
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Vitamin C is an essential ingredient in the diet of which species?
a) rabbits and guinea pigs
b) nonhuman primates and gerbils
c) guinea pigs and non-human primates
d) hamsters and rabbits
guinea pigs and non-human primates
35
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The best method for euthanizing a large group of mice is:
a) carbon dioxide
b) lethal injection
c) decapitation
d) cervical dislocation
a) carbon dioxide
36
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Rabbits practice coprophagy primarily to recover
a) water
b) fats and carbohydrates
c) b-vitamin complex
d) vitamin A
b-vitamin complex
37
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What is the primary cause of upper respiratory disease in rats?
a) mycoplasma piliforme
b) murine paramyxovirus
c) mycoplasma pulmonis
d) clostridium piliforme
mycoplasma pulmonis
38
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Porphyrins are secreted by which gland in the rat?
a) harderian
b) ocular
c) pituitary
d) chromolacrimal
harderian
39
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Ferrets not intended for breeding should be spayed to prevent hyperestrogenism. What is the serious clinical effect of this disease?
a) convulsions
b) hepatic necrosis
c) pancytopenia
d) osteopenia
pancytopenia
40
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What zoonotic viral disease of primates produces a mild disease with ulcers on the mucous membranes and tongue of Macaques, but is lethal to other primates and humans?
a) rabies
b) herpes B
c) tuberculosis
d) measles
herpes B
41
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How long should a pet rat be fasted prior to anesthesia?
a) 6 hours
b) fasting is not necessary
c) 3 hours
d) 24 hours
fasting is not necessary
42
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What is the causative agent of Tyzzer's disease?
a) salmonella tyzzeri
b) herpes t virus 040
c) sendai virus
d) clostridium piliforme
clostridium piliforme
43
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Which is seen in chromodacryorrhea in rats?
a) diarrhea
b) red tears
c) hematuria
d) torticollis
red tears
44
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The genus of the ferret ear mite is
a) eimeria
b) aspiculuris
c) otodectes
d) psoroptes
otodectes
45
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How much blood could be safely taken from a rat weighing 360 grams?
a) 18-36 mL
b) 0.35 mL
c) 1 mL
d) 1.8-3.5 mL
1.8-3.5 mL
46
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What human viral disease can be transmitted to non-human primates?
a) camphylocbacterosis
b) herpes simplex type 1
c) slamonellosis
d) measles
measles
47
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Before inducing anesthesia, how long should a pet rat be fasted?
a) fasting is not necessary
b) 12 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 6 hours
fasting is not necessary
48
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The female of what species exhibits the sexually dimorphic characteristic called the dewlap?
a) cricetulus griseus
b) meriones unguiculatus
c) cavia porcellus
d) oryctolagus cuniculus
oryctolagus cuniculus
49
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How do rabbits differ from rodents?
a) have a large cecum
b) have NO gallbladder
c) have 2 sets of upper incisors
d) have open-rooted incisors
have 2 sets of upper incisors
50
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The sex of the juvenile Guinea pig is determined by
a) palpation of the pelvic region
b) anogenital distance
c) secondary sex characteristics
d) behavioral traits
palpation of the pelvic region
51
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You cannot convert the drug dosage used in cats and dogs to lab animal species because laboratory animals have:
a) low basal metabolic rate relative to BM
b) low basal metabolic rate
c) higher core temperature
d) high basal metabolic rate relative to BSA
high basal metabolic rate relative to BSA
52
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With regard to behavior of guinea pigs,
a) secretions from the anal and supracaudal gland are used to mark territory
b) they tend to be nocturnal animals
c) they react to fear by stomping their feet
d) they dig and hibernate
they react to fear by stomping their feet
53
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The species often referred to as cavies is
a) hamster
b) rabbit
c) rat
d) guinea pig
guinea pig
54
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The Animal Welfare Act is administered and enforced by:
a) National Institutes of Health
b) American Humane Society
c) American Association for Laboratory Animal Science
d) USDA
USDA
55
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The normal dentition for rabbits is
a) 2003/2003
b) 1002/1002
c) 2033/1023
d) 1003/1003
2033/1023
56
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Parturition in the Guinea Pig is termed:
a) farrowing
b) queening
c) littering
d) kindling
farrowing
57
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Malocclusion in which of the following species involves elongated premolars and molars?
a) rabbit
b) rat
c) ferret
d) guinea pig
guinea pig
58
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What laboratory animal species has cheek pouches and callous pads on its buttocks?
a) guinea pig
b) rhesus monkey
c) hamster
d) rabbit
rhesus monkey
59
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What is the earliest common clinical sign seen in ferrets or rabbits are overheating?
a) sweating
b) panting
c) vocalizations
d) licking their front legs
panting
60
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Tularemis is most commonly associated with that species?
a) crietulus griseus
b) oryctolagus cuniculus
c) cavia porcellus
d) gallus domesticus
oryctolagus cuniculus
61
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The pigeons crop is part of which structure?
a) cecum
b) spleen
c) pancreas
d) esophagus
esophagus
62
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The major causative agent of chronic respiratory disease in rats is:
a) mycoplasma
b) mycobacterium
c) pasteurella
d) pseudomonas
mycoplasma
63
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What group reviews animal research protocols to be sure that the methods of care and use are appropriate and in compliance with federal and institutional guidelines?
a) Institutional Animal Care and Use Commitee
b) American Association for Laboratory Animal Science
c) American Humane Society
d) American Veterinary Medical Association
Institutional Animal Care and Use Commitee
64
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Monitoring reflexes of the rabbit for anesthesia would include all of the following except:
a) tail pinch
b) watching the 3rd eyelid and PLR
c) ear pinch
d) palpebral
tail pinch
65
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Electrical activity that serves as the pacemaker in the heart originates from what specific area?
a) sinoatrial node in the left atrium
b) sinoatrial node in the right atrium
c) bundle of his in the left ventricle
d) atrioventricular node in the right ventricle
sinoatrial node in the right atrium
66
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Which of the following is NOT a sign of shock?
a) elevated body temperature
b) increased respiratory effort
c) tachycardia
d) pale mucous membranes
elevated body temperatures
67
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Vitamin K is used to treat which poison?
a) snail bait
b) malathion
c) theobromine
d) brodifacoum
brodifacoum
68
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A dog tries to swallow a ball and it becomes lodged in the back of his throat. He is conscious and alert but only able to take slow, shallow breaths. Which of the following abnormalities would you expect?
a) respiratory acidosis
b) respiratory alkalosis
c) metabolic acidosis
d) metabolic alkalosis
respiratory acidosis
69
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Gastric dilatation/volvulus (GDV) is a life-threatening emergency. Its main damaging effect is the obstruction of the
a) renal veins
b) caudal vena cava
c) femoral vein
d) coronary veins
caudal vena cava
70
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When performing CPR on a neonatal calf, which are the two most critical procedures to begin?
a) establish venous access and cardiac compressions
b) cardiac compressions and administration of drugs
c) establish airway and cardiac compressions
d) establish an airway and venous access
establish an airway and cardiac compressions
71
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Which solution is least desirable for treatment of shock?
a) lactated ringers solution
b) 0.9% sodium chloride
c) 5% dextrose
d) colloids
5% dextrose
72
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The four patients described below present to your clinic at the same time. In what order should these patients be triaged?
a) 2 year old male Siamese cat with complete urethral obstruction of 2 days duration
b) 4 year old ferret with tracheal foreign body and cyanosis
c) 8 year old poodle with a laceration on the forelimb
d) 2 year old rabbit infected with psoroptes
b, a, c, d
73
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Oxygen can be administered to a patient through all of the following except:
a) endotracheal tube
b) chest tube
c) tracheostomy tube
d) nasal catheter
chest tube
74
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A small breed dog is considered tachycardic if the heart is
a) \>180
b)
\>180
75
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Which of the following would be best to treat a cat that experiences status epilepticus?
a) midazolam
b) diphenhydramine
c) methocarbimol
d) doxapram
midazolam
76
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A dog that has metaldehyde poisoning and presents with seizures. His temperature is 109 F, and you begin cooling techniques while the Veterinarian treats the seizures. At what temperature should you stop trying to cool the dog?
a)99
b) 101
c) 103
d) 107
103
77
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You need to administer emergency drugs and fluids to a critical 0.25kg puppy but are unable to place a cephalic or jugular catheter. What would be the best alternative route?
a) intraosseous
b) intramuscular
c) oral
d) subcutaneous
intraosseous
78
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To reduce intracranial pressure that results from trauma, which of the following may be administered?
a) mannitol
b) atropine
c) epinephrine
d) 4-methyl pyrazole
mannitol
79
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Which heart rhythm shows occasional bizarre shaped QRS complexes at random intervals?
a) ventricular premature contractions
b) asystole
c) sinus arrhythmia
d) atrial fibrilation
ventricular premature contractions
80
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What is the isotonic crystalloid one hour " shock dose" of fluids for a cat?
a) 40-50 ml/kg
b) 90 ml/kg
c) 120-150 ml/kg
d) 180 ml/kg
40-50ml/kg
81
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A 10 year old domestic shorthair cat presents with a history of vomiting and inappetence and is severely dehydrated. His CBC shows a hematocrit of 22%. What can be said about this cat?
a) his true hematocrit is likely higher than 22%
b) the cat is actively losing blood
c) his true hematocrit is likely lower than 22%
d) the cat is in renal failure
his true hematocrit is likely lower than 22%
82
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What is the normal reading for central venous pressure?
a) 0-10 cm H20
b) 10-20 cm H20
c) 20-30 cm H20
d) 30-40 cm H20
0-10 cm H20
83
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Which of the following is a clinical sign that you would see in a dog with chocolate toxicosis?
a) paralysis
b) tachycardia
c) swollen tongue
d) petechia
tachycardia
84
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What is the rate of cardiac compressions applied to a large dog during cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
a) 12-20 per minute
b) once every three seconds
c) 80-100 per minute
d) 120-150 per minute
80-100 per minute
85
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A large dog was hit by a car and presented for mild shock and respiratory distress. On physical exam, you notice that when the dog inhales, part of the chest wall sinks into the chest. What is the condition?
a) diaphragmatic hernia
b) gastric dilatation/volvulus
c) flail ches
d) cardiac tamponade
flail chest
86
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Constant rate infusion of dopamine or dobutamine is used to achieve what desired effect?
a) control seizures
b) increase heart contractility
c) decrease urinary output
d) emesis
increase heart contactility
87
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A patient with pneumothorax is most likely to exhibit which symptoms?
a) dyspnea
b) hypertension
c) bloat
d) severe tremors
dyspnea
88
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A toy poodle presents for muscle tremors, stiff gait, and reluctance to walk. Her history shows that her vaccines are up to date and that she is currently nursing five 3 week old puppies. You run a CBC and serum chemistry. What is the most likely abnormal result?
a) anemia
b) hyperkalemia
c) thrombocytopenia
d) hypocalcemia
hypocalcemia
89
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A three week old kitten is found twitching and non-responsive. what home treatment is most likely to improve the condition?
a) tylenol
b) urinary catheter
c) karo syrup
d) enema
karo syrup
90
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Which of the following are in the correct order following the flow of blood through the heart?
a) left atrium, tricuspid valve, left atrium, pulmonic valve
b) right atrium, mitral valve, right ventricle, aortic valve
c) left atrium, tricuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic valve
d) right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve
right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonic valve
91
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How much time does it take before cardiac arrest causes irreversible brain damage?
a) ten minutes
b) seven minutes
c) three minutes
d) thirteen minutes
three minutes
92
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Emesis should not be induced in a dog that has consumed which toxin?
a) chocolate
b) gasoline
c) arsenic
d) bromethalin
gasoline
93
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The rapid IV administration of large amounts of potassium can result in:
a) epistaxis
b) liver damage
c) cardiac arrest
d) urine retention
cardiac arrest
94
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The volume of 1:10,000 epinephrine for intravenous administration to a dog is calculated to be 2.0mL . What volume of epinephrine should be drawn up for intratracheal administration to the same patient?
a) 1.0 mL
b) 2.0 mL
c) 4.0 mL
d) 20.0 mL
4.0 mL
95
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What is the major cause of shock in extreme burn cases?
a) severe pain
b) bacterial infection
c) hyperthermia
d) fluid loss
fluid loss
96
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Crackles on thoracic auscultation indicate
a) asthma
b) upper airway obstruction
c) fluid in the lungs
d) pleural space disease
fluid in the lungs
97
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Placement of a jugular catheter is contraindicated in which of these situations?
a) vomiting
b) pancreatitis
c) thrombocytopenia
d) renal failure
thrombocytopenia
98
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What is the preferred method of providing nutritional support to a critical care patient?
a) per os
b) total parenteral nutrition
c) enema
d) percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
per os
99
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Cardiac compressions are applied to which location?
a) first to second ribs
b) second to third ribs
c) third to sixth ribs
d) eighth to tenth ribs
third to sixth ribs
100
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You have a new position at a veterinary ICU and are familiarizing yourself with the crash cart. You find a 60 cc syringe with a 3-way stopcock, extension set and 22 gauge needle attached. What might this equipment be used for?
a) jugular catheter placement
b) thoracocentesis
c) tracheal drug administration
d) decreasing intratracheal pressure
thoracocentesis