IS435 Final

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1
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1) Wi-Fi Standards come from the \________ Working Group.
A) 802.1
B) 802.3
C) 802.11
D) 802.1X
Answer: C
2
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2) If another wireless device is near, but in an unknown direction, it is better to use \________.
A) an omnidirectional antenna
B) a dish antenna
C) a directional antenna
D) a MIMO antenna
Answer: A
3
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3) If a signal has a strength of 100 mW at 10 meters, how strong will it be at 40 meters?
A) about 0.5 mW
B) about 5 mW
C) about 25 mW
D) about 6.25 mW
Answer: D. P2\=100mW*(10/40)^2 \=6.25 mW
4
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4) What propagation problem is especially bad in moist air?
A) absorptive attenuation
B) electromagnetic interference
C) multipath interference
D) inverse square law attenuation
Answer: A
5
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5) What propagation problem becomes worse when there is a large, and dense, object between
sender and receiver?
A) multipath interference
B) shadow zones (dead zones)
C) inverse square law attenuation
D) none of the above
Answer: B
6
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6) Multipath interference is mitigated through \________.
A) broadband transmission
B) MIMO
C) beamforming
D) spread spectrum transmission
Answer: D
7
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7) To handle multiple conversations in 802.11 transmission, you normally use multiple
\________.
A) channels
B) frequencies
C) service bands
D) wires
Answer: A
8
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8) To transmit data very rapidly, you would want a \________ channel.
A) narrowband
B) broadband
C) single-frequency band
D) single-mode
Answer: B
9
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9) The term "broadband" is commonly used for \________.
A) wide radio bandwidths
B) high-speed transmission in general
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: C
10
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10) WLANs normally use \________.
A) licensed bands
B) unlicensed bands
C) leased bands
D) None of them
Answer: B
11
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11) Two access points that operate on the same channel will \________.
A) bond
B) coordinate their use of the channel
C) interfere
D) divide the available spectrum about equally
Answer: C
12
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12) The downside of unlicensed bands is potential \________
A) speed loss
B) loss of flexibility
C) interference from others
D) less-developed standards
Answer: C
13
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13) The 2.4 GHz band supports \________ possible non-overlapping 20 MHz channel(s).
A) 1
B) 3
C) 7
D) 11
Answer: B
14
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14) Companies prefer the 5 GHz band because there is \________ than in the 2.5 GHz band.
A) more bandwidth
B) less absorptive attenuation
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
15
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15) Spread spectrum transmission is used in WLANs for \________.
A) higher transmission speed
B) more reliable transmission
C) greater security
D) more efficient transmission
Answer: B
16
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16) A wireless host sends a packet to a server on the company's wired Ethernet LAN via an
access point. How many frames will be involved in this one-way transmission?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) There will be one frame for each switch along the way.
Answer: B
17
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17) A single access point, and the set of hosts it serves, is called a(n) \________.
A) BSS
B) BSSID
C) ESS
D) none of the above
Answer: A
18
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18) To use an access point, you need to know its \________.
A) SSID
B) BSS
C) ESS
D) Wi-Fi ID
Answer: A
19
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19) In an extended service set, each access point \________.
A) must have the same SSID
B) must have a different SSID
C) must have a coordinated SSID
D) none of the above
Answer: A
20
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20) \________ is a technique for preventing two wireless stations from interfering with each other
by transmitting at the same time.
A) Creating extended service sets
B) Roaming
C) The distribution system
D) Media access control
Answer: D
21
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21) In CSMA\CA, CS means \________.
A) cancel sending
B) counter-source
C) carriage suspension
D) carrier sense
Answer: D
22
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22) CSMA\CA+ACK is \________.
A) unreliable
B) reliable
C) semi-reliable
D) don't know
Answer: B
23
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23) In \________, when a wireless host wishes to send, it first sends a message to the wireless
access point asking for permission to send. When the access point sends back a response, the
host sending the original message may transmit. All other hosts must wait.
A) CSMA\CA+ACK
B) CSMA\CA
C) CSMA\CD
D) RTS\CTS
Answer: D
24
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24) Which of the following is more efficient and faster?
A) CSMA\CA+ACK
B) RTS\CTS
C) Both are about equally efficient and fast.
D) don't know
Answer: A
25
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25) When does it make sense to use RTS\CTS?
A) when all devices can hear each other
B) when not all of the devices can hear each other
C) when efficiency is crucial
D) always
Answer: B
26
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26) Wider channel bandwidth \________.
A) increases transmission speed
B) allows more channels to be used in a service band
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
27
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27) Individual throughput for users of an access point \________.
A) depends on how many users are sharing the access point
B) depends on your distance from the access point
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: C
28
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28) MIMO \________.
A) bonds two or more channels for higher speed
B) is used in all forms of 802.11
C) uses a single spatial stream but multiple signals
D) transmits multiple signals in the same channel
Answer: D
29
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29) MIMO \________.
A) increases transmission speed
B) increases transmission distance
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: C
30
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30) An access point can transmit to more than one wireless client at a time with \________.
A) bonding
B) MIMO
C) Multiuser MIMO
D) CSMC\CA+ACK
Answer: C
31
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31) If an 802.11n client tries to use an 802.11ac access point, \________.
A) they will not be able to communicate
B) they will communicate using 802.11n
C) they will communicate using 802.11ac
D) either B or C
Answer: B
32
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32) Because of \________, an 802.11ax access point can communicate with an 802.11ay client.
A) MIMO
B) MU-MIMO
C) backward compatibility
D) They CANNOT communicate.
Answer: C
33
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33) The main problem with the 60 GHz unlicensed band is that \________.
A) it cannot be used outside
B) it does not support MIMO
C) transmission speed is low
D) transmission distance is short
Answer: D
34
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34) 802.11i provides \________.
A) confidentiality
B) message integrity
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: C
35
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35) In 802.11i, protection is provided between the client and the \________.
A) access point
B) switch
C) router
D) server
Answer: A
36
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36) The protection of communication between a wireless client and the access point is \________.
A) link security
B) end-to-end security
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
37
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37) 802.11i PSK initial authentication mode was created for \________.
A) corporations with multiple access points
B) residences with a single access point
C) residences with less than eight access points
D) corporations with less than eight access points
Answer: B
38
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38) 802.11i 802.1x initial authentication mode was created for \________.
A) corporations with multiple access points
B) residences with a single access point
C) residences with less than eight access points
D) corporations with less than eight access points
Answer: A
39
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39) After authentication in 80.11i PSK mode, a wireless client communicates with the access
point via a(n) \________ key.
A) VPN
B) pairwise session
C) 802.1x
D) a shared initial
Answer: B
40
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40) After two wireless clients authenticate themselves via PSK to an access point, they will use
\________ to communicate with the access point.
A) a shared initial key
B) an 802.1X key
C) an WPA key
D) different pairwise session keys
Answer: D
41
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41) In 802.1x initial authentication mode, the authenticator is the \________.
A) wireless client
B) wireless access point
C) authentication server
D) none of the above
Answer: B
42
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42) What initial authentication mode does 802.11i use?
A) 802.1x
B) PSK
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: C
43
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43) A \________ is an unauthorized internal access point.
A) binky
B) shadow
C) rogue
D) none of the above
Answer: C
44
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44) When a wireless client in an evil twin attack transmits, \________.
A) the evil twin reads the packet, encrypts it, and passes on the packet
B) the evil twin reads the frame, encrypts it, and passes on the frame
C) the evil twin reads the packet and passes on the packet
D) the evil twin reads the frame and passes on the frame
Answer: B
45
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45) Which of the following is usually set up by a hacker outside the building?
A) a rogue access point
B) an evil twin access point
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: B
46
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46) Which of the following secures communication between the wireless computer and the
server it wishes to use against evil twin attacks?
A) VLANs
B) VPNs
C) 802.1X mode
D) none of the above
Answer: B
47
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47) A VPN provides \________.
A) link security
B) end-to-end security
C) comprehensive security
D) none of the above
Answer: B
48
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48) Selecting locations for access points first involves \________.
A) laying out circles of a chosen diameter in a diagram of the building
B) doing a wireless site survey
C) selecting locations that reflect organizational units
D) all of the above
Answer: A
49
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49) Site surveys should be done \________.
A) after the initial provisional placement of access points
B) periodically afterwards
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: C
50
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50) A security might use SNMP Get commands to \________.
A) change an access point's power
B) collect information to look for a rogue access point
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: B
51
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51) A security might use SNMP Set commands to \________.
A) change an access point's power
B) collect information to look for a rogue access point
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
52
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52) Which is the correct formula for decibels?
A) 10 * P2\P1
B) 10 * (P2\P1)2
C) 10*Log10(P2\P1)
D) none of the above
Answer: C
53
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53) Compared to an omnidirectional antenna, a dish antenna quadruples radiated power. How
much is this change in decibels?
A) 6 dB
B) 9 dB
C) 16 dB
D) none of the above
Answer: A
54
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54) A change in power from 100 W to 1 W corresponds to approximately \________ decibels.
A) 10
B) 20
C) -10
D) -20
Answer: D
55
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55) Bluetooth \________ is likely to be used most of the time in IoT transmission.
A) HDR
B) HS
C) LE
D) COIN
Answer: C
56
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56) If a master has multiple slaves, Bluetooth will use \________ operation.
A) all-to-all
B) point-to-multipoint
C) one-to-all
D) one-to-one
Answer: D
57
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57) In Bluetooth LE, \________ notify other Bluetooth devices that it is available.
A) advertisements
B) beacons
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
58
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58) In Bluetooth LE, \________ provide information.
A) advertisements
B) beacons
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: B
59
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59) When two devices communicate using NFC, how close must they be?
A) a few inches
B) up to 5 feet
C) up to 10 feet
D) up to 50 feet
Answer: A
60
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60) Passive RFID chips get the power needed to transmit from \________.
A) wall power
B) coin batteries
C) the electricity that always flows through the air in small quantities
D) none of the above
Answer: D
61
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61) Wi-Fi direct \________ uses access points.
A) always
B) usually
C) rarely
D) never
Answer: D
62
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62) In Zigbee, ad hoc networking's mesh is operated by \________.
A) Zigbee Controllers
B) Zigbee End Devices
C) Zigbee Routers
D) Zigbee Hives
Answer: C
63
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63) UDP is a standard for \________.
A) packet delivery
B) supervision
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
64
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64) Router sockets for wire and optical fiber cords are called \________.
A) sockets
B) plugs
C) interfaces
D) ports
Answer: C
65
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65) A border router connects different IP \________.
A) subnets
B) networks
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: B
66
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66) An internal router connects different IP \________.
A) subnets
B) networks
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
67
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67) A mask has \________ bits.
A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
D) 64
Answer: C
68
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68) In the mask 255.255.255.0, how many 1s are there?
A) 8
B) 16
C) 24
D) 48
Answer: C
69
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69) In the mask \14, how many 1s are there?
A) 8
B) 16
C) 24
D) none of the above
Answer: D
70
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70) Express the mask \18 in dotted decimal notation.
A) 255.0.0.0
B) 255.255.0.0
C) 255.255.255.0
D) none of the above
Answer: D
71
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71) If no other row matches, the router will select the \________ row as its best match.
A) first
B) last
C) either A or B, depending on the circumstances
D) neither A nor B
Answer: B
72
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72) The first step in the routing process involves \________.
A) selecting the best match row
B) comparing the packet's destination IP address to all rows
C) comparing the packet's destination IP address to matching rows
D) selecting an interface
Answer: B
73
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73) The second step in the routing process involves \________.
A) selecting the best-match row
B) comparing the packet's destination IP address to all rows
C) comparing the packet's destination IP address to matching rows
D) selecting an interface
Answer: A
74
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74) Row 2707 has the mask \16 and the cost metric 20. Row 4400 has the mask \14 and the cost
metric 10. The default row has a metric cost of 2. Which row will the router choose if both are
matches?
A) 2707
B) 2708
C) 4400
D) 4401
Answer: A
75
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75) Row 2707 has the mask \16 and the reliability metric 20. Row 4400 has the mask \16 and the
reliability metric 10. Which row will the router choose if both are matches?
A) 2707
B) 4400
C) either A or B
D) The router will choose the default row.
Answer: A
76
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76) The next-hop router listed in the last row is the \________ router.
A) local
B) best-match
C) socket
D) default
Answer: D
77
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77) If the next-hop router field in the best-match row says "local", the router should address the
packet to the \________.
A) local router
B) default router
C) destination host
D) none of the above.
Answer: C
78
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78) If a router receives 20 packets in a row going to the same destination IP address, the standard
calls for it to \________.
A) go through all three steps for each
B) use the decision it made for the first one
C) send them via different routers to create load balancing along different routes
D) none of the above
Answer: A
79
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79) In decision cashing, when 20 packets arrive to the same destination IP address, the router
will \________.
A) go through all three steps for each
B) use the decision it made for the first one
C) send them via different routers to create load balancing along different routes
D) none of the above
Answer: B
80
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80) Decision caching \________.
A) reduces routing costs
B) is safe
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
81
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81) In IPv4, the \________ field is used to deal with congestion in the Internet.
A) ECN
B) DiffServ
C) time to live
D) header checksum
Answer: A
82
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82) The identification field in IPv4 is used for \________.
A) route fragmentation
B) frame fragmentation
C) application message fragmentation
D) packet fragmentation
Answer: D
83
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83) Which of the following allows packet fragmentation?
A) IPv4
B) IPv6
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
84
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84) Which of the following checks for errors in the packet header?
A) IPv4
B) IPv6
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: A
85
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85) A router will discard a packet if the Time to Live (TTL) value in an arriving packet is
\________.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 254
D) 256
Answer: B If a packet arrives at a router with TTL Value 1 then that router should discard (as TTL becomes 0).
86
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86) The main benefit of IPv6 over IPv4 is \________.
A) having two more bits in the IP address
B) having two more bytes in the IP address
C) the ability to have quality-of-service guarantees
D) the ability to support more hosts
Answer: D
87
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87) For human reading, IPv6 addresses are written in \________ notation.
A) dotted decimal
B) hexadecimal
C) binary
D) all of the above
Answer: B
88
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88) In IPv6 addresses, \________ are separated by \________.
A) segments, dots
B) segments, colons
C) fields, dots
D) fields, colons
Answer: D
89
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89) If I simplify the address 2001:0000:0000:00fe:0000:0000:0000:cdef, I get \________.
A) 2001:0:0:fe::cdef
B) 2001::fe:0:0:0:cdef
C) 2001:0:0:fe:0:0:0:cdef
D) 2001::00fe:0::cdef
Answer: A
90
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90) Which RFC standardizes how to write IPv6 addresses in canonical form?
A) RFC 791
B) RFC 2707
C) RFC 5952
D) RFC 7600
Answer: C
91
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91) The version number field in IPv6 has the value \________.
A) 0001
B) 0100
C) 0101
D) 0110
Answer: D
92
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92) In IPv6, the payload length gives the number of octets in the \________.
A) entire packet
B) entire packet minus the main header
C) entire packet minus the main and extension headers
D) entire packet minus the extension headers
Answer: B
93
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93) If you see 0 in the Next Header Field of a header, what will follow this header?
A) hop-by-hop options
B) destination options
C) mobility header
D) none of the above
Answer: A
94
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94) An abrupt close uses a \________ segment.
A) FIN
B) RST
C) either A or B
D) neither A nor B
Answer: B
95
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95) You have a 20-bit network part and a 4-bit subnet part. How many hosts can you have per
subnet?
A) 15
B) 16
C) 254
D) none of the above
Answer: C
96
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96) Your firm has a 22-bit network part. What subnet part would you select to give at least 10
subnets?
A) 2 bits
B) 3 bits
C) 4 bits
D) none of the above
Answer: C
97
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97) Your firm has a 22-bit network part and a 6-bit subnet part. How many usable hosts can you
have per subnet?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 14
D) 16
Answer: C
98
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98) The routing prefix in IPv6 is like the \________ part in an IPv4 address.
A) network
B) subnet
C) host
D) both A and B
Answer: A
99
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99) What field in an IPv6 global unicast address corresponds to the subnet part of an IPv4
address?
A) global routing prefix
B) subnet ID
C) interface ID
D) none of the above
Answer: B
100
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100) If the subnet ID in an IPv6 address is 32 bits, how long is the routing prefix?
A) 16 bits
B) 32 bits
C) 64 bits
D) none of the above
Answer: B (interface ID: 64 bits fixed)