Integrated 2 Exam 2

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51 Terms

1
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Which is NOT a component or a process associated with innate immunity?
A. Skin
B. Inflammation
C. Antibody production
D. Mucous membranes

C. Antibody production

2
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A type of symbiotic relationship in which both symbionts are equally benefited:
A. Commensalism
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
D. Opportunism
E. None of the above

C. Mutualism

3
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A type of symbiotic relationship in which one organism is benefited and the other is unaffected:
A. Opportunism
B. Commensalism
C. Parasitism
D. Mutualism
E. None of the above

B. Commensalism

4
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Which of the following is NOT a mechanical barrier?
A. Lacrimation
B. Lysozyme flow
C. Urination
D. Sneezing
E. Coughing

B. Lysozyme flow

5
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All blood cells in the body originate from this type of cells:
A. Erythrocyte
B. Eosinophlic stem cell
C. Mononuclear phagocytic cell
D. Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell
E. Thrombocyte

D. Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell

6
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The process of phagocytosis includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Chemotaxis
B. Recognition and attachment
C. Lysogeny
D. Engulfment
E. Digestion and Destruction

C. Lysogeny

7
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Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body?
A. Erythrocyte
B. B Cell
C. T Cell
D. Macrophage
E. Platelets

D. Macrophage

8
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An enzyme that destroys white blood cells:
A. Hemolysin
B. Leukocidin
C. Coagulase
D. Stzeprokinase
E. None of the above

B. Leukocidin

9
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Which of the following microbes is the most virulent?
A. LD50 = 10^7
B. LD50 = 10^1
C. LD50 = 10^8
D. LD50 = 10^4
E. LD50 = 10^10

B. LD50 = 10^1

10
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This individual observed a relationship between cowpox in dairy maids and smallpox:
A. Pasteur
B. Koch
C. Tyndill
D. Jenner
E. None of the above

D. Jenner

11
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This enzyme can destroy blood (fibrin) clots:
A. Coagulase
B. Streptokinase
C. Leukocidin
D. Hemolysin
E. None of the above

B. Streptokinase

12
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An individual is injected with antibodies to boost their immunity. What type of immunity is this?
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Both
D. Neither

B. Passive

13
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In type I allergic reactions, antibodies are produced and bind to:
A. Mast cells
B. Neutrophils
C. Macrophages
D. Eosinophils
E. Monocytes

A. Mast cells

14
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Which of the following is NOT a cardinal feature of inflammation?
A. Pain
B. Heat
C. Swelling
D. Immunodiffusion
E. Redness

D. Immunodiffusion

15
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This toxin causes massive diarrhea with characteristic rice-water stools:
A. Staphylococcal enterotoxin
B. E. Coli enterotoxin
C. Botulinum toxin
D. Vibrio enterotoxin
E. Strepto coccal erythrogenic toxin

D. Vibrio enterotoxin

16
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A person with type AB blood has which type of antibody in their plasma?
A. Antibody A
B. Antibody B
C. Both
D. Neither

D. Neither

17
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The specific cells that synthesize and secrete immunoglobulins:
A. T helper cells
B. Plasma cells
C. Cytotoxic T cells
D. Memory cells
E. Eosinophils

B. Plasma cells

18
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The antibodies found on the surface of B cells:
A. TCR
B. BCR
C. TLR
D. CD3 Complex
E. None of the above

B. BCR

19
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Which cells differentiate into plasma cells?
A. T cells
B. Macrophages
C. Basophils
D. B cells
E. Eosinophils

D. B cells

20
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Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
A. Spleen
B. Peyer's patches
C. Tonsils
D. Lymph nodes
E. Thymus

E. Thymus

21
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All of the following are secondary lymphoid organs EXCEPT:
A. Spleen
B. Bone marrow
C. Lymph nodes
D. Tonsils
E. Peyer's patches

B. Bone marrow

22
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This immunoglobulin (pentamer) is the first one produced in response to antigen stimulation:
A. IgM
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. IgG

A. IgM

23
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This immunoglobulin can exist as a dimmer and is found in body secretions (eg. Saliva):
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgD
E. IgA

E. IgA

24
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Inactivated toxins that are injected and used to induce antibody production:
A. Haptens
B. Toxigens
C. Hyperimmune globulin
D. Toxoids
E. Immune globulin

D. Toxoids

25
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The only immunoglulin that can cross the placenta and protect the newborn:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgD
D. IgA
E. IgE

B. IgG

26
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Which of the following immunoglobulins can bind to mast cells in allergic responses:
A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgM
D. IgA
E. IgE

E. IgE

27
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Which of the following is an APC?
A. Plasma cells
B. T helper cells
C. NK cells
D. Macrophages
E. Cytotoxic T cells

D. Macrophages

28
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This region of the antibody is responsible for binding antigen molecules:
A. Fe
B. Fab
C. Fap
D. Fd
E. CH1

B. Fab

29
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Tc cells can accept antigen only when presented by:
A. MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. MHC class III molecules
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A. MHC class I molecules

30
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T H cells can accept antigen only when presented by:
A. MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. MHC class III molecules
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

B. MHC class II molecules

31
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Which CD marker is found on the surface of T helper cells?
A. CD8
B. CD6
C. CD4
D. CD5
E. None of the above

C. CD4

32
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Whooping Cough is prevented by the use of this vaccine:
A. MMR
B. IPV
C. DTaP
D. Hib
E. OPV

C. DTaP

33
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Which of the following cells can induce viral-infected cells to undergo apoptosis?
A. Neutrophils
B. B cells
C. NK cells
D. Basophils
E. Eosinophils

C. NK cells

34
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Administration of a vaccine is an example of:
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Naturally acquired passive immunity
C. Artificially acquired active immunity
D. Artificially acquired passive immunity
E. None of the above

C. Artificially acquired active immunity

35
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A fetus gets its antibodies by this type of immunity:
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. Naturally acquired passive immunity
D. Artificially acquired passive immunity

C. Naturally acquired passive immunity

36
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The attraction of leukocytes to the area of inflammation is referred to as:
A. Parasitism
B. Infection
C. Phototaxis
D. Chemotaxis
E. None of the above

D. Chemotaxis

37
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Erythroblastosis fetalis is a condition of the newborn that results from a hypersensitive reaction between a:
A. Rh+ mother and Rh- fetus
B. Rh+ mother and Rh+ fetus
C. Rh- mother and Rh+ fetus
D. Rh- mother and Rh- fetus

C. Rh- mother and Rh+ fetus

38
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An immunodeficiency characterized by a lack of T cells:
A. Agammaglobulinemia
B. DiGeorge syndrome
C. Chediak- Higashi disease
D. Graves' disease
E. Hemolytic Anemia

B. DiGeorge syndrome

39
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This autoimmune disease is characterized by autoantibodies binding to acetylcholine receptors:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Graves' disease
D. Myasthenia Gravis
E. SCID

D. Myasthenia Gravis

40
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Transplantation of a baboon's heart into a human is this type of graft:
A. Autograft
B. Allograft
C. Isograft
D. Xenograft

D. Xenograft

41
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Administration of antivenom for a snake bite is an example of this type of immunity:
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Naturally acquired passive immunity
C. Artificially acquired active immunity
D. Artificially acquired passive immunity

D. Artificially acquired passive immunity

42
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Which class (es) of immunoglobulins are found on the B cell surface?
A. IgD
B. IgA
C. IgM (monomeric)
D. IgG
E. Both A and C

E. Both A and C

43
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The discrete portions of an antigen where antibodies can bind to are called:
A. Haptens
B. Antigenic determinants/ Epitopes
C. Monomers
D. Domains

B. Antigenic determinants/ Epitopes

44
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A term synonymous with antibody is:
A. Antigen
B. Epitope
C. Determinant
D. Immunoglobulin

D. Immunoglobulin

45
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There are _________ classes of antibody:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. None of the above

C. 5

46
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T cells develop and mature in the:
A. Bone marrow
B. Thyroid gland
C. Thymus
D. Peyer's patches
E. Nervous tissue

C. Thymus

47
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Name the category of antigenic determinant from the diagram:
A. Unideterminant, Univalent
B. Unideterminant, Multivalent
C. Multideterminant, Univalent
D. Multideterminant, Multivalent

B. Unideterminant, Multivalent

48
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Contact dermatitis is this type of hypersensitivity:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

D. Type IV

49
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A low molecular weight chemical that becomes an antigen when it binds to a carrier:
A. Determinant
B. Hapten
C. Valence monomer
D. Opsonin
E. None of the above

B. Hapten

50
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Which vaccine is used to prevent polio?
A. IPV
B. HPV
C. MCV
D. PCV
E. RPV

A. IPV

51
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A bacteriostatic agent:
A. Inhibits the growth and destroys the bacterium
B. Only inhibits the growth of bacterium
C. Causes irreversible destruction to the bacterium
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

B. Only inhibits the growth of bacterium