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CH 10, 14-17
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What does a vaccine contain?
Weakened or killed pathogen or parts of a pathogen
When a person has previously been vaccinated against a viral pathogen, which cells are activated if that same pathogen re-enters the host's cells months or years later?
Memory cytotoxic T cells
What is the primary benefit of vaccination?
An immune response will occur quicker upon future exposure to the pathogen.
Which type of vaccine could possibly cause a person to develop the disease?
Attenuated live vaccine
What is the hallmark of a conjugated vaccine?
These vaccines contain weakly antigenic elements plus a more potent antigenic protein.
The influenza vaccine is an example of a(n)
inactivated killed vaccine.
What is the function of boosters?
Boosters are injections that are given periodically to maintain immunity.
The Hepatitis B vaccine is which type of vaccine?
Subunit vaccine
BCG is a vaccine against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The vaccine is composed of a live Mycobacterium bovis variant called bacillus of Calmette and Guérin. This is an example of which type of vaccine?
attenuated whole agent vaccine
To vaccinate children against the bacterial infection diphtheria, pure diphtheria toxin is chemically modified and injected as a vaccine. This is an example of which type of vaccine?
toxoid vaccine
Patients can receive one of two different types of influenza vaccine, both of which use whole viruses. The nasal spray uses live virus and is an example of a(n) ________ vaccine, while the injection uses killed virus and is an example of a(n)___________ vaccine.
attenuated whole agent, inactivated whole agent
Which of the following best describes vaccination?
An individual is exposed to a killed pathogen, an inactivated pathogen, or a component of a pathogen. The individual is protected from subsequent exposures to the pathogen because the adaptive immune system is stimulated to produce memory B cells and memory T cells, which protect from subsequent exposures.
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using live attenuated vaccines?
They are usually safer than other types of vaccines.
What is an adjuvant?
a chemical additive that increases the effectiveness of vaccines
I have a new test for determining whether a patient is infected with the influenza virus. It is very specific but not very sensitive. What does this mean?
False-positives will be rare, but false-negatives may happen frequently.
You are conducting a viral hemagglutination inhibition test. Which of the following indicates that a patient's serum has antibodies against influenza virus?
Hemagglutination occurs in a mixture of influenza virus and erythrocytes but does not occur when the patient's serum is added.
Which of the following is NOT a reason why monoclonal antibodies (Mabs) are useful?
They are always highly sensitive.
__________ reactions are used to detect antibodies for relatively large pathogens, such as bacteria. For these tests, the antigen is mixed with the test sample at various dilutions. Reaction mixes are then monitored for the formation of visible aggregates.
Agglutination
Direct fluorescent-antibody techniques are frequently used to __________.
detect microorganisms in a clinical sample
What is the purpose of conjugated vaccines?
to enhance the immune response of children to polysaccharide antigens
Western blotting is best used for which of the following?
to detect a specific protein in a mixture
What cellular macromolecules make up the complement pathway?
a. Lipids
b. Nucleic acids
c. Carbohydrates
d. Proteins
d
Based on the animation, which of the following is cleaved by C1?
a. C5
b. C2 and C4
c. C4
d. C2
e. C5 and C4
b
Where are the complement proteins found in the body?
a. The blood serum
b. In every cell
c. The liver
d. The thymus
e. The spleen
a
Based on the animation, which of the following is responsible for cleaving C3?
a. C2aC4b
b. C4aC2b
c. C5bC6C7
d. C1
a
Based on the animation, which of the complement proteins can directly bind to the surface of a bacterial cell?
a. C2b
b. C4a
c. C2a
d.C5b
e. C3b
e
How does cytolysis occur via the complement pathway?
a. Formation of the MAC in invading cells, killing them
b. Stimulation of the inflammatory response
c. Triggering the release of histamine
d. Disrupting cell wall of pathogens
a
Which complement protein is used as an opsonin?
a. C3a
b. C4a
c. C3b
d. C7
e. C5b
f. C2a
c
If a person lacked the ability to form C5, what direct result of complement could still occur?
a. Cytolysis
b. Opsonization
c. Chemotaxis
b
If a person could not form C2, which result of complement would be affected?
a. Opsonization
b. Cytolysis
c. Chemotaxis and inflammation
d. Cytolysis, chemotaxis, inflammation, and opsonization
d
What complement result nvolves the use of phagocytes?
a. Chemotaxis
b. Chemotaxis and opsonization
c. Cytolysis
d. Opsonization
b
An inflammatory response would result from which of the following?
a. Jellyfish sting
b. A headache
c. Vomiting
a
If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred?
a. The ankle is very warm to the touch.
b. The ankle swells.
c. The ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch.
d. The ankle is red.
c
What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron?
a. To repair the damaged tissue
b. To destroy the agent causing injury
c. To destroy the agent causing injury, to limit the effects of the agent on the rest of the body, and to repair the damaged tissue
d. To limit the effects of the agent on the rest of the body
a
What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries?
a. They decrease the diameter of capillaries.
b. They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky.
c. They prevent phagocytes from sticking to the walls of capillaries.
b
Diapedesis is
a. the attachment of phagocytes to the walls of capillaries.
b. the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage.
c. the production and release of chemicals during inflammation.
d. the increase in the diameter of blood vessels.
b
Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair?
a. It allows more nutrients to be delivered to the site of damage.
b. It allows for an increase in oxygen to the site of damage.
c. It allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage.
d. It allows more phagocytes to travel to the site of damage.
c
Pus is comprised of
a. collected cells from damaged tissue.
b. dead phagocytes.
c. excess fluid from leaky blood vessels.
d. unused histamines and leukotrienes.
b
Which of the following can release histamines?
a. The complement system
b. Wood from a splinter
c. Invading bacterial cells
d. Cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway
e. Cells from damaged tissues
d
Which of the complement pathways employs properdin?
a. Classical pathway
b. Alternative pathway
c. Lectin pathway
d. Alternative and lectin pathways all employ properdin.
e. Classical, alternative, and lectin pathways all employ properdin.
f. The classical and alternative pathways both require properdin.
b
In the classical pathway, which of the following directly activates cellular responses?
a. C2aC4b
b. C3a, C5a, and C5bC6C7
c. C5bC6C7
d. C3b
e. C4aC2bC3b
f. C3a and C5a
b
Antibodies from cellular immune responses are used in
a. the alternative pathway.
b. both the classical and alternative pathways.
c. the classical pathway.
d. the lectin pathway.
c
Which of the complement pathways was discovered first?
a. The lectin pathway
b. The classical pathway
c. The alternative pathway
b
Which of the following are functions of lectins?
a. They act as opsonins for phagocytosis, they attach to carbohydrates on some bacterial and viral surfaces, and they activate C2 and C4.
b. They act as opsonins for phagocytosis.
c. They produce antibodies.
They attach to carbohydrates on some bacterial and viral surfaces.
d. They can activate C2 and C4.
They produce factor P (properdin).
a
Basophils, platelets, and _____ are all capable of secreting histamines.
a. monocytes
b. complement
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils
c
Which of the following groupings contain things that are all true indicators of inflammation?
a. redness, heat, edema, pain
b. redness, coolness, numbness, fever
c. blueness, coolness, edema, pain
d. redness, heat, edema, pain, fever
a
Increased permeability of the vessels leads to _____ and pain.
a. heat
b. redness
c. edema
d. fever
c
The process of blood clotting leads to the formation of _____ a potent mediator of inflammation.
a. prostaglandin
b. bradykinin
c. leukotriene
d. histamine
b
Histamines are released when mast cells are exposed to _____, which are fragments of complement proteins.
a. bradykinins
b. C3a and C5a
c. C3 and C5
d. platelets
b
Inflammatory mediators such as bradykinin and histamine cause blood vessels to _____.
a. vasoconstrict
b. increase permeability
c. lengthen
d. vasodilate
d
Leukocytes have the ability to cross the vessel wall out of the blood stream and into the tissues. This process is known as _____.
a. phagocytosis
b. apoptosis
c. diapedesis
d. phagocytosis
c
Acute and chronic inflammations differ in that acute inflammation _____.
a. involves the formation of pus
b. always involves a fever
c. develops quickly, ends quickly, and is typically beneficial
d. develops slowly, lasts a long time, and is potentially damaging
c
If a person could not form C2, which result of complement would be affected?
a. Opsonization
b. Cytolysis
c. Chemotaxis and inflammation
d. Cytolysis, chemotaxis, inflammation, and opsonization
d
Mucous membranes are a part of
adaptive defense.
the complement system.
humoral immunity.
cell-mediated immunity.
innate defense.
innate defense.
According to the animation, B cells interact directly with
the complement system.
phagocytes.
helper T cells.
inflammation.
helper T cells.
Which of the following defense systems would be involved in eliminating virally-infected cells?
Humoral immunity
Phagocytosis
Complement system
T lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
According to the animation, antibodies directly interact with which innate defenses?
Inflammation
The complement system
Phagocytosis and the complement system
Phagocytosis, inflammation, and the complement system
First-line defenses
Phagocytosis
Phagocytosis and the complement system
Which cells directly attack abnormal cells in the body?
Phagocytes
Helper T cells
Cytotoxic T cells
B cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Which part of the adaptive immune response involves B cells?
Humoral
Both humoral and cell-mediated
Cell-mediated
Neither humoral nor cell-mediated
Humoral
Antibodies are a part of which type of immunity?
Cell-mediated
Neither humoral nor cell-mediated
Humoral
Both humoral and cell-mediated
Humoral
Which type of cell directly attacks infected cells?
Bacterial cells
Cytotoxic T-cells
Cancerous cells
Helper T-cells
cytotoxic T-cells
Immune cells that secrete cytokines and activate other immune cells are:
Virally infected cells
Abnormal body cells
Helper T-cells
Cytotoxic T-cells
Invading pathogenic bacteria
Helper T Cells
HIV directly infects T-cells. Why is this problematic for cell-mediated immunity?
Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body.
HIV transforms the T-cells into cancer cells.
HIV reprograms these cells to attack the body cells.
HIV causes cytokines to be produced at much higher levels, altering the normal function of the immune system.
Cytotoxic T-cells begin to attack the virally infected T-cells, reducing the number of T-cells in the body.
How do helper T-cells and cytotoxic T-cells work together?
Helper T-cells produce cytotoxic T-cells.
Cytotoxic T-cells produce cytokines to activate helper T-cells.
Cytotoxic T-cells attack abnormal body cells, while helper T-cells attack virally infected cells.
Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system
Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system.
Antigen processing and presentation
is only accomplished by bacterial cells.
is the way foreign cells engulf macrophages.
is a way for a cell to give information about its activities.
is a way for viruses to infect cells.
is a way for a cell to give information about its activities
Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?
Antigens are required for cell-to-cell attachment.
All cells of the body can engulf invading cells.
Antigens are infectious and can spread to normal cells.
Non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with
a virus.
non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus
How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?
They spread viruses to other cells.
They engulf virally infected cells.
They present antigens from engulfed foreign cells.
they present antigens from engulfed foreign cells
Where are MHC molecules located on a cell?
Inside the cell cytoplasm
On the surface of the cell
In the nucleus
They are not associated with any one location on the cell
On the surface of the cell
What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC-I proteins?
They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long.
They are large proteins from the host.
They are derived from bacteria.
They are small fragments of nucleic acids, 8-10 nucleotides in length.
They are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long.
Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC-I antigens?
The mitochondria
The nucleus
The phagosome
The Golgi apparatus
The endoplasmic reticulum
The endoplasmic reticululm
When does MHC-II loading occur?
During the fusion of vesicles containing MHC-II proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens
During viral infection
After passing through the endoplasmic reticulum
During phagocytosis of an invading pathogen
During the fusion of vesicles obtaining MHC-II proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens
Which of the cells listed below can present antigens on Class II MHC proteins?
Virus infected epithelial cells
Healthy epithelial cells
Tumor cells
Macrophages
Macrophages
What is apoptosis?
The process of programmed cell death.
The receptor on a cytotoxic T-cell that recognizes MHC molecules.
A protein molecule that forms a pore in the membranes of infected cells.
The proliferation of cytotoxic T-cells.
The process of programmed cell death
What is the function of the CD8 receptor?
Produce IL-2
Produce gamma interferon
Bind to MHC molecules
Activate cytokines
Bink to MHC molecules
What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T-cells?
They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of these cells then differentiate into long-lived memory T-cells, while others mature to attack infected cells.
Each activated cytotoxic T-cell proliferates, forming a clone of cells specific to the same antigen.
They are destroyed via apoptosis.
They can mature and attack infected cells.
They are infected by viruses.
They can differentiate into long-lived memory T-cells.
They proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen; some of the cells then differentiate into long-lived memory T cells, while other mature to attack infected cells
Which molecule triggers apoptosis?
Granzyme
Gamma-interferon
Perforin
IL-2
MHC
Granzyme
Which event happens first during cytotoxic T-cell activation?
Secretion of granzymes and perforin
CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells
Clonal proliferation
Production of IL-2 and gamma-interferon receptors
CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells
Which receptor on the helper T-cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell?
IL-2 Receptors
IL-1 Receptors
TCR
CD4
TCR
TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate
cytotoxic T-cells.
B cells.
macrophages.
natural killer cells
B cells
Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T-cell?
IL-2 receptors
CD8 receptors
MHC proteins
IL-1 receptors
MHC proteins
When do helper T-cells develop into TH1 or TH2 cells?
After proliferation into a clonal population
Immediately after the binding of the CD4 receptor
Before autostimulation
After B cell activation
After proliferation into colonel population
Natural killer cells are activated by
TH1 cells.
TH2 cells.
antigen-presenting cells.
bacterial cells.
TH1 cells.
The primary immune response involves
a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a rapid decline.
an immediate increase in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a slow decline.
a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline.
an immediate increase in the concentration of antibodies, followed by an immediate and sharp decline.
a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline
According to the animation, for approximately how many days is IgG present in the serum?
Fifteen days
Five days
Ten days
Twenty days
Ten days
According to the animation, on what day does IgM first appear?
Day one
Day fifteen
Day five
Day ten
five days
Which cells are involved in a secondary response?
Memory B cells
Memory B cells and plasma cells
Plasma cells
T cells
Memory B cells and plasma cells
How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood?
The secondary response is slower, but produces more antibodies than the primary response.
There is no difference with regard to antibody concentration in the blood.
The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.
The secondary response is faster, but does not produce more antibodies than the primary response.
The secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the primary response.
According to the animation, on which day does the production of IgG occur in the secondary response?
Day two
Day ten
Day five
Day fifteen
Day five
An anamnestic response is
the term used to describe the production of antibodies from a plasma cell.
another name for secondary response.
another name for primary response.
the appearance of antibodies in serum.
another name for secondary response
What makes agglutination by antibodies possible?
Antibodies can recognize bacteria as well as viruses.
Antibodies are produced by plasma cells.
Antibodies can inactivate toxins.
Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites.
Each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites
What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity?
Plasma cells neutralize toxins.
Plasma cells produce antibodies.
Plasma cells engulf viruses.
Plasma cells are phagocytes.
Plasma cells activate the complement system.
PLASMA CELLS PRODUCE ANTIBODIES
Which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies?
The antibodies may coat the surface of the bacteria (opsonization), allowing for it to be tagged for phagocytosis.
The antibodies may stick to multiple bacteria, causing agglutination.
The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host.
The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria.
The antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria.
Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection?
The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody
The production of identical T cells producing the same antibody
The production of different antigens by the same B cell
The production of identical B cells producing different antibodies
The production of identical B cells producing the same antibody
What is produced by the process of clonal expansion?
Plasma cells, T cells, and memory B cells
Plasma cells
Memory B cells
Plasma cells and memory B cells
Plasma Cells, and memory B cells
An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as
T-independent antigens.
BCR.
antibodies.
T-dependent antigens.
T- independent antigens
Based on the animation, T cells recognized the antigen displayed by what protein of the B cell?
MHC
CD4
Antigen
TCR
BCR
MHC
How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days?
Memory B cells can also produce antibodies.
T cells can also produce antibodies.
Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second.
Each plasma cell can proliferate into more plasma cells.
Each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 Antibodies every second
Which of the following are characteristics of an adaptive immune response?
Select all that apply.
The response is specific.
The response is inducible.
The response is clonal.
The response has memory.
Fast-acting.
The response is clonal.
The response has memory.
The response is inducible.
The response is specific.
Which of the following best describes why molecules such as glycoproteins are more effective antigens compared to molecules such as starch?
Select the best answer.
Since starch is a polymer of glucose (which is used by eukaryotic cells for energy), it is not recognized as foreign.
Glycoproteins have greater molecular mass compared to starch; therefore, they will elicit a stronger immune response.
In general, proteins stimulate stronger immune responses than carbohydrates such as starch.
Glycoproteins contain a variety of shapes and subunits that contribute to the overall complexity of the molecule.
Glycoproteins contain a variety of shapes and subunits that contribute to the overall complexity of the molecule.
Which of the following most accurately describes the characteristics of MHCII molecules in mounting the antibody response?
Select the best answer.
found on all nucleated cells, present endogenous antigens, activate cytotoxic T cells
found on APC, present exogenous antigens, activate T helper cells
found on APC, present endogenous antigens, activate T helper cells
found on APC, present exogenous antigens, activate cytotoxic T cells
found on APC
present exogenous antigens
activate T helper cells