forensic biochem 2 exam 3

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degraded DNA, PCR inhibition, low template DNA, DNA mixtures, population subdivision, CODIS, databases

Last updated 8:17 PM on 3/26/26
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90 Terms

1
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heat, light, humidity, and time since deposit all affect the ___ of a DNA sample

quality

2
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environmental exposure degrades DNA molecules via _______

hydrolysis

3
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water is bad for a DNA sample as it contributes to ________ of the sample

hydrolysis

4
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________ and _______ are bad for DNA bc they use it as food and “chew it up”

microorganisms, nucleases

5
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______ is an old technique that can be used to evaluate the quality of the sample, or how degraded the sample is

agarose gel

6
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high molecular weight DNA is ~_______ and of good quality for DNA analysis

20,000

7
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<p>the gel on the LEFT is of __________ DNA</p>

the gel on the LEFT is of __________ DNA

good quality

8
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<p>the gel on the RIGHT is of ________ DNA</p>

the gel on the RIGHT is of ________ DNA

degraded

9
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earlier DNA typing techniques used large allele sizes, which made analysis of degraded DNA _______

not possible

10
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TRUE OR FALSE

with modern DNA analysis using STRs, obtaining a profile from a degraded sample is more likely than with earlier DNA typing techniques

true

11
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for PCR amplification to occur with a degraded sample, ___________ must be intact

primer sequence and the sequence inbetween

12
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the more degraded a sample is, the ______ PCR products are

shorter

13
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there is an _______ relationship between the size of the locus and successful PCR amplification from degraded samples

inverse

14
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the ski slope effect refers to how ________ using degraded DNA

signal strength is gradually lost with larger PCR products

15
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<p>this graph exhibits an example of </p>

this graph exhibits an example of

ski slope effect

16
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created to generate a profile from degraded DNA

miniSTRs

17
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miniSTRs have primers that ____, thus having a greater chance of obtaining a useful profile

anneal closer to the repeat region

18
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outdoor crime scene PCR inhibitors

soil, sand, wood, leaves

19
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interior crime scene PCR inhibitors

textile dyes, leather, wood

20
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major PCR inhibitor found within blood

heme

21
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PCR inhibitors can:

interfere with cell lysis, cause DNA degradation, inhibit pol activity

22
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PCR inhibitor within tissue and hair

melanin

23
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PCR inhibitor found within feces

bile salts

24
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PCR inhibitor found within soil

humic compounds

25
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PCR inhibitor found within urine

urea

26
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PCR inhibitor found within blue jeans

textile dyes

27
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amplification of a sample containing inhibitors can cause:

loss of alleles within larger loci, no profile, look like a degraded sample

28
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solutions for trying to amplify a sample with inhibitors present:

dilution, add more pol, use alternative pol, use anti-inhibitor additives, purify sample

29
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the most logical solution for dealing with a DNA sample with inhibitors is ____

purification prior to PCR

30
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many casework samples do not contain the ________ ng amount of DNA required for amplification

0.5-1

31
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category of samples where “specialized” techniques are needed for analysis

low template DNA

32
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when a limited humber of target molecules exist within a sample (like within low template DNA), PCR primers ______ resulting in lower peak height or potential drop-out

may not always find all DNA molecules in the sample

33
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strategies for improving sensitivity with low template DNA

increased cycle number, increased CE injection, post PCR purification, reduced volume PCR, nested PCR, mtDNA testing

34
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DNA amplification technique that uses two successive PCR reactions and two sets of primers ("outer" then "inner") to amplify a specific target sequence

nested PCR

35
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low template DNA has ______ stutter

increased

36
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occurs when one allele is preferentially amplified in early rounds of PCR

heterozygous peak imbalance

37
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when dealing with low template DNA, a peak height imbalance of greater than ___% can occur

60

38
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2 “schools of thought” for dealing with random effects from testing low template DNA

stop testing/interpreting data from low template DNA, try and limit random variation by testing and research for implementation

39
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approaches to improving reliability of results

improving DNA recovery at collection and extraction stages, improving profiling of samples, accounting for allele drop-out and other stochastic efforts during statistical interpretation

40
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refers to a sample is amplified and profiled more than once to obtain a consensus for varied alleles

replicate analysis

41
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arise when 2 or more individuals contribute to the sample

mixture

42
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clues that help to determine if a mixture is present

loci have more than 2 alleles, really high stutter, severe peak imbalance

43
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all possible genotypes for 4 peaks (A, B, C, D)

A, B + C, D

A, C + B, D

A, D + B, C

44
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all possible genotypes for 3 peaks (A, B, C)

A, A + B, C

B, B + A, C

C, C + A, B

A, B + A, C

B, C + A, C

A, B + B, C

45
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all possible genotypes for 2 peaks (A, B)

A, A + A, B

A, B + A, B

A, A + B, B

A, B + B, B

46
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population subdivision entails a ________-like effect

inbreeding

47
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population subdivision _______ the proportion of heterozygous genotypes

decreases

48
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refers to when there is a perceived deficiency of heterozygotes in the population due to treating 2 different populations as one

Wahlund effect

49
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HI

heterozygosity of an individual in a population

50
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HS

expected heterozygosity of an individual in an equivalent random mating subpopulation

51
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HT

expected heterozygosity of an individual in an equivalent random mating total population

52
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HS is always equal to

2piqi

53
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pi represents

allele frequency

54
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HT is always equal to

2p0q0

55
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FIS measures

reduction in heterozygosity of an individual due to nonrandom mating within a subpopulation

56
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FIS is equal to

(HS-HI)/HS

57
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the fixation index or FST refers to

reduction in heterozygosity of a subpopulation due to random genetic drift

58
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FST is equal to

(HT-HS)/HT

59
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FIT measures

reduction in heterozygosity of an individual relative to the total population

60
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FIT is equal to

(HT-HI)/ HT

61
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______ is the most inclusive measure of inbreeding, as it takes into account the effects of nonrandom mating within subpopulations and the effects of population subdivision

FIT

62
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mathematical relationship between FIS, FST, and FIT

(1-FIS)(1-FST)=(1-FIT)

63
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in natural populations, FIS is typically close to ___

0

64
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when FIS=0, then FST=___

FIT

65
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in some contexts, FST is referred to as ______ or ______

GST, theta

66
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FST is used as a measure of

genetic differences among populations

67
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FST is influenced by

random genetic drft, migration, natural selection, and mutation

68
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FST= 0 - 0.05 can be interpreted as

little genetic differentiation “by no means negligible”

69
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FST= 0.05-0.15 can be interpreted as

moderate genetic difference

70
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FST= 0.15-0.25 can be interpreted as

great genetic differentiation

71
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FST= greater than 0.25 can be interpreted as

very great genetic differentiation

72
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of the total genetic variation between African, European, and Asain population groups, ~ __ % can be attributed to genetic differences between the population groups

7

73
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~____% of the total genetic variation is found in individuals within the groups (African, European, Asain)

93

74
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FST can be interpreted in terms of identity by descent → FST refers to the probability that

2 alleles chosen from the same subpopulation are ibd

75
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as random drift occurs from generation to generation, the value of F will _____

increase

76
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3 key components must be in-place before a DNA database can be established and actually be effective:

commitment for state and local governments to provide DNA samples, common set of DNA markers, quality standards

77
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3 steps for entering DNA sample into database

collect specimen, analyze sample and enter into database, compare known samples to questioned sample

78
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FBI launched the national DNA database, _______, in 1988

National DNA Index System

79
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softwarre program used to access the national DNA database

Combined DNA Index System

80
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Congress enacted the DNA Identification Act in _____

1994

81
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Expressly authorized the NDIS and established the FBI’s authority to maintain it for law enforcement purposes

DNA Identification Act

82
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SDIS stands for

State DNA Index System

83
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LDIS stands for

Local DNA Index System

84
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2 main categories for entry into NIBIN (excluding missing persons)

offender profiles, forensic profiles

85
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DNA from known individuals are stored in the _______ section

offender

86
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DNA from an unknown source, typically from evidence, is stored in the _______ category

forensic

87
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before a DNA profile can be entered into the Forensic Index of CODIS, labs must promide assurance that _______

evidence is connected to a criminal offense

88
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labs are able to prove that the evidence meets CODIS elements of offense typically by __________

witness statement

89
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90
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