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degraded DNA, PCR inhibition, low template DNA, DNA mixtures, population subdivision, CODIS, databases
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heat, light, humidity, and time since deposit all affect the ___ of a DNA sample
quality
environmental exposure degrades DNA molecules via _______
hydrolysis
water is bad for a DNA sample as it contributes to ________ of the sample
hydrolysis
________ and _______ are bad for DNA bc they use it as food and “chew it up”
microorganisms, nucleases
______ is an old technique that can be used to evaluate the quality of the sample, or how degraded the sample is
agarose gel
high molecular weight DNA is ~_______ and of good quality for DNA analysis
20,000

the gel on the LEFT is of __________ DNA
good quality

the gel on the RIGHT is of ________ DNA
degraded
earlier DNA typing techniques used large allele sizes, which made analysis of degraded DNA _______
not possible
TRUE OR FALSE
with modern DNA analysis using STRs, obtaining a profile from a degraded sample is more likely than with earlier DNA typing techniques
true
for PCR amplification to occur with a degraded sample, ___________ must be intact
primer sequence and the sequence inbetween
the more degraded a sample is, the ______ PCR products are
shorter
there is an _______ relationship between the size of the locus and successful PCR amplification from degraded samples
inverse
the ski slope effect refers to how ________ using degraded DNA
signal strength is gradually lost with larger PCR products

this graph exhibits an example of
ski slope effect
created to generate a profile from degraded DNA
miniSTRs
miniSTRs have primers that ____, thus having a greater chance of obtaining a useful profile
anneal closer to the repeat region
outdoor crime scene PCR inhibitors
soil, sand, wood, leaves
interior crime scene PCR inhibitors
textile dyes, leather, wood
major PCR inhibitor found within blood
heme
PCR inhibitors can:
interfere with cell lysis, cause DNA degradation, inhibit pol activity
PCR inhibitor within tissue and hair
melanin
PCR inhibitor found within feces
bile salts
PCR inhibitor found within soil
humic compounds
PCR inhibitor found within urine
urea
PCR inhibitor found within blue jeans
textile dyes
amplification of a sample containing inhibitors can cause:
loss of alleles within larger loci, no profile, look like a degraded sample
solutions for trying to amplify a sample with inhibitors present:
dilution, add more pol, use alternative pol, use anti-inhibitor additives, purify sample
the most logical solution for dealing with a DNA sample with inhibitors is ____
purification prior to PCR
many casework samples do not contain the ________ ng amount of DNA required for amplification
0.5-1
category of samples where “specialized” techniques are needed for analysis
low template DNA
when a limited humber of target molecules exist within a sample (like within low template DNA), PCR primers ______ resulting in lower peak height or potential drop-out
may not always find all DNA molecules in the sample
strategies for improving sensitivity with low template DNA
increased cycle number, increased CE injection, post PCR purification, reduced volume PCR, nested PCR, mtDNA testing
DNA amplification technique that uses two successive PCR reactions and two sets of primers ("outer" then "inner") to amplify a specific target sequence
nested PCR
low template DNA has ______ stutter
increased
occurs when one allele is preferentially amplified in early rounds of PCR
heterozygous peak imbalance
when dealing with low template DNA, a peak height imbalance of greater than ___% can occur
60
2 “schools of thought” for dealing with random effects from testing low template DNA
stop testing/interpreting data from low template DNA, try and limit random variation by testing and research for implementation
approaches to improving reliability of results
improving DNA recovery at collection and extraction stages, improving profiling of samples, accounting for allele drop-out and other stochastic efforts during statistical interpretation
refers to a sample is amplified and profiled more than once to obtain a consensus for varied alleles
replicate analysis
arise when 2 or more individuals contribute to the sample
mixture
clues that help to determine if a mixture is present
loci have more than 2 alleles, really high stutter, severe peak imbalance
all possible genotypes for 4 peaks (A, B, C, D)
A, B + C, D
A, C + B, D
A, D + B, C
all possible genotypes for 3 peaks (A, B, C)
A, A + B, C
B, B + A, C
C, C + A, B
A, B + A, C
B, C + A, C
A, B + B, C
all possible genotypes for 2 peaks (A, B)
A, A + A, B
A, B + A, B
A, A + B, B
A, B + B, B
population subdivision entails a ________-like effect
inbreeding
population subdivision _______ the proportion of heterozygous genotypes
decreases
refers to when there is a perceived deficiency of heterozygotes in the population due to treating 2 different populations as one
Wahlund effect
HI
heterozygosity of an individual in a population
HS
expected heterozygosity of an individual in an equivalent random mating subpopulation
HT
expected heterozygosity of an individual in an equivalent random mating total population
HS is always equal to
2piqi
pi represents
allele frequency
HT is always equal to
2p0q0
FIS measures
reduction in heterozygosity of an individual due to nonrandom mating within a subpopulation
FIS is equal to
(HS-HI)/HS
the fixation index or FST refers to
reduction in heterozygosity of a subpopulation due to random genetic drift
FST is equal to
(HT-HS)/HT
FIT measures
reduction in heterozygosity of an individual relative to the total population
FIT is equal to
(HT-HI)/ HT
______ is the most inclusive measure of inbreeding, as it takes into account the effects of nonrandom mating within subpopulations and the effects of population subdivision
FIT
mathematical relationship between FIS, FST, and FIT
(1-FIS)(1-FST)=(1-FIT)
in natural populations, FIS is typically close to ___
0
when FIS=0, then FST=___
FIT
in some contexts, FST is referred to as ______ or ______
GST, theta
FST is used as a measure of
genetic differences among populations
FST is influenced by
random genetic drft, migration, natural selection, and mutation
FST= 0 - 0.05 can be interpreted as
little genetic differentiation “by no means negligible”
FST= 0.05-0.15 can be interpreted as
moderate genetic difference
FST= 0.15-0.25 can be interpreted as
great genetic differentiation
FST= greater than 0.25 can be interpreted as
very great genetic differentiation
of the total genetic variation between African, European, and Asain population groups, ~ __ % can be attributed to genetic differences between the population groups
7
~____% of the total genetic variation is found in individuals within the groups (African, European, Asain)
93
FST can be interpreted in terms of identity by descent → FST refers to the probability that
2 alleles chosen from the same subpopulation are ibd
as random drift occurs from generation to generation, the value of F will _____
increase
3 key components must be in-place before a DNA database can be established and actually be effective:
commitment for state and local governments to provide DNA samples, common set of DNA markers, quality standards
3 steps for entering DNA sample into database
collect specimen, analyze sample and enter into database, compare known samples to questioned sample
FBI launched the national DNA database, _______, in 1988
National DNA Index System
softwarre program used to access the national DNA database
Combined DNA Index System
Congress enacted the DNA Identification Act in _____
1994
Expressly authorized the NDIS and established the FBI’s authority to maintain it for law enforcement purposes
DNA Identification Act
SDIS stands for
State DNA Index System
LDIS stands for
Local DNA Index System
2 main categories for entry into NIBIN (excluding missing persons)
offender profiles, forensic profiles
DNA from known individuals are stored in the _______ section
offender
DNA from an unknown source, typically from evidence, is stored in the _______ category
forensic
before a DNA profile can be entered into the Forensic Index of CODIS, labs must promide assurance that _______
evidence is connected to a criminal offense
labs are able to prove that the evidence meets CODIS elements of offense typically by __________
witness statement