TEAS ANATOMY/PHYSIOLOGY

• How many total body cavities?

• Which ones contained in ventral cavity?

• Which ones contained in dorsal cavity?

• 7

• thoracic, abdominal, pelvic

• spinal, cranial

Directional terms

• ___: closer to point of attachment to body THAN another body part

• ___: away from point of attachment to body THAN another body part

• ___: away from midline

• ___ : toward midline

• ____: laying down facing up

• ____: laying down facing down 

• proximal

• distal

• lateral

• medial

• supine position

• prone position

Body planes/sections

• ___ = uneven left and right 

• ___ = even left and right 

• ___ = top and bottom

• ___ = front and back

• saggital

• midsaggital

• transverse

• coronal/frontal

Body regions:

1. ____: contains head

2. ____: contains trunk + neck

3. ____: contains arms

4. ____: contains legs

• head region

• central region

• upper limb region

• lower limb region

Homeostasis: body maintains relatively constant environment within body

• each cell is surrounded by a little bit of fluid that needs to remain within narrow range of conditions (properly called “_____”)

• these 3 variables are?

• which type of feedback is rare in health people?

• variables

• temp, volume, chemical content

• positive feedback

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

• Function?

• Blood is only contained in ___ and ___; NEVER free flowing throughout body

• ____ circulation: when blood enters heart from vena cavas → eventually exits from pulmonary artery (and into lungs)

• ____ circulation: when blood enters heart from pulmonary veins → eventually exits from aorta (and to ur whole body)

• plays a DIRECT*** role in supplying O2 to body via systemic circulation

• heart

• blood vessels

Cardiac cycle: starts with ___ + ends in ___

• Since heart is muscular tissue, there are electrical signals that are detected with what machine?

• Systole = when the chamber (____ specifically) contracts to push blood into ____

• Diastole = when ___r relaxes and fills with blood 

• atrial contraction

• ventricular contraction

• EKG

• ventricle

• systemic circulation

• any chamber

LABEL THE EKG

____: pressure expelled on arteries from blood

• Normal BP range?

Heart rate (AKA pulse): ___ per ____

• Normal heart rate: 60-100 bpm

• what does a higher resting heart rate indicate?

• blood pressure

• 120/80 mmhg

• beats

• minute

• youre prob unhealthy/dont workout much

HOW IT WORKS

1. does blood passively or actively fill the left atrium?

2. the pressure causes atrial contraction and relaxation to force blood through ____ valve

3. blood flows into left ventricle > left ventricle contracts to expel blood via ___ artery 

4. does blood passively or actively fill right atrium?

5. the pressure causes atrial contraction and relaxation to force blood through ____ valve

6. blood flows into right ventricle > right ventricle contracts to expel blood via ____

• passively

• tricuspid valve

• pulmonary

• passively

• biscuspid

• aorta

Composition of centrifuged blood sample:

• at top =

• in middle =

• at bottom

• plasma

• buffy coat (thin layer of WBC + platelets)

• RBC

• blood cells size from smallest to largest?

• what is the main protein in blood?

• ____ = found on blood cell surface

• ____ = proteins in plasma that alert immune system 

• platelet, RBC, WBC

• albumin

• antigens

• antibodies

3 steps of Hemostasis?

• vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clot formation

HEMOSTASIS

1. vascular spasm: constriction of ____

2. platelet plug formation: temporary seal via ____

3. clot formation: ____ functions as glue around the plug > then ____ remain trapped at the site to facilitate wound healing

• small blood vessels

• platelet aggregation

• fibrin mesh

• RBC and platelets

BLOOD TYPE A

• who can they donate to?

• who can they accept from?

• A, AB

• A, O

BLOOD TYPE B

• who can they donate to?

• who can they accept from?

• B, AB

• B, O

BLOOD TYPE AB

• who can they donate to?

• who can they accept from?

• AB

• everyone

BLOOD TYPE O

• who can they donate to?

• who can they accept from?

• everyone

• blood type O (the RH factor has to match too)

___: where substance and gas exchange occurs bxn blood and capillaries

• is blood flow fast or slow here?

• capillaries

• slow

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

• Function?

• Resp system also works with which other system (for blood pH + blood gas levels)

• plays INDIRECT role in supplying O2 to body cells bc solely facilitates gas exchange

• nervous system

RESP TRACT

• ___: passage for air and food

• ____: pushes air into trachea + pushes food past epiglottis into esophagus 

  • is this located above or below the pharynx?

• ____: secreted from epithelial cells of nose prevent shit from entering resp.tract

• ____: secreted from pleura (covering lungs)

  • function of this fluid?

• ____: secreted from type 2 pneumocytes of alveoli

  • function of this fluid?

• pharynx

• larynx

• below

• mucous

• serous fluid

• prevent friction of lungs against other organs

• surfactant

• prevent friction to prevent lung collapse

• Upper resp tract =

• Lower resp tract =

• nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx

• trachea, bronchi, lungs

• Air conducting region includes?

• Gas exchange region includes?

• Ventilation: gas exchange in/out of which organ?

• nose, mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles

• lungs, capillaries, alveoli

• lungs

• is right or left lung bigger?

• right lung has how many lobes?

• where it is located?

• left lung has how many lobes?

• where it is located?

• right

• 3

• under ribcage and NOT NEAR heart

• 2

• under ribcage and NEAR heart (think of doing pledge of allegiance and where ur heart is located)

• ____: 2-layers that cover lungs for cushioning + prevent friction

• located at the base of lungs, what is the main muscle for inspiration?

• Diaphragm movement during inspiration?

• Diaphragm movement during inspiration?

• What structure do capillaries surround for gas exchange @ lungs?

• pleura

• diaphram

• contracts and moves down

• relaxes and moves up (returns to its dome-shape)

• alveoli

• External respiration: occurs bxn what?

  • O2 diffuses from alveoli to blood > enters left side of heart > later enters systemic circulation 

• Internal respiration: occurs bxn what? and tissues

  • O2 diffuses from tissues to blood > enters tissue cells

• lungs and blood

• blood and tissues

Does CO2 or O2 need to be monitored for blood gas and blood pH homeostasis?

CO2

____ salivary glands located @ in front of ur ears

parotid

• 2 main organs of female repro.system?

• ____: stage where basic human body (w/organ systems, basic structures, etc) have developed 

• ____: period of conception → birth

• ___: period of around birth —> after birth

• Route of nourishment from mother to fetus?

• cervix and uterus

• embryogenesis

• gestation

• natal period

• uterus > placenta > umbilical cord

• 2 main organs of male repro.system?

• Sperm route?

• penis and testes

• testes > epididymis > vas deferens > seminal vesicle > prostate > urethra

URINARY SYSTEM

• kidney main function?

• How many liters of blood goes throguh kidneys everyday?

• Nephron is composed of what 2 main parts?

• regulate blood-water

• 180L

• renal corpuscle + renal tubule

• BLOOD enters kidney via ____ → leaves kidney via ____

• Bladder has how many openings?

• Primary site for tubular reabsorption is?

• Primary site for tubular secretion is?

• Where is urine concentrated?

• renal artery

• renal vein

• 3

• PCT

• DCT

• collecting duct

Proximal convoluted tube

• what is reabsorbed?

• what is secreted?

Loop of henle

• what is reabsorbed?

• what is secreted?

Distal convoluted tube

• what is reabsorbed?

• what is secreted?

Collecting duct

• what is reabsorbed?

• what is secreted?

• ALL glucose and proteins + MOST salt and water

• creatinine, drugs, H+, ammonia

• SOME water

• nothing

• SOME salts

• H+, K+, salts

• SOME water

• ignore

• If you pee concentrated urine, is ADH present or absent?

• If you pee normal, diluted urine, is ADH present or absent?

• ADH present

• ADH absent

• Is MICROscopic or MACROscopic urine analysis used to: determine urine color and uses dipstick to determine diff solute concentrations in urine sample

• Is MICROscopic or MACROscopic urine analysis used to: determine RBC and fat cell count in urine; via centrifuging

• macroscopic

• microscopic

NERVOUS SYSTEM

• main function: control body via 3 main things…

  • sensory (using PNS)

  • integration (using CNS)

  • motor (CNS coordinates body’s reaction to stimulus)

yes

Nervous system: PNS

• PNS breakdown into what 2 branches?

• Autonomic branch breakdown into what 2 branches?

  • which branch is fight or flight?

  • which branch is rest and relax?

• somatic (voluntary) and autonomic (involuntary)

• sympathetic and parasympathetic

• sympathetic

• parasympathetic

____: protects brain from physical shock + also removes neural tissue waste to keep itself clean

cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)

• 3 main brain regions are?

• 4 brain lobes are?

• cerebrum, cerebellum, brain stem

• frontal lobe, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, occipital lobe

BRAIN LOBES GO:

• for higher executive function, reasoning, planning, emotional regulation, voluntary movement, producing speech

• INTEGRATION of visual info in terms of spatial awareness/navigation

• INTEGRATION of sensory info (touch, pain, pressure)

• language comprehension and memories

• INTERPRETS visual stimuli (this is the primary lobe for visual stuff)

• frontal lobe

• parietal lobe

• parietal lobe

• temporal lobe

• occipital lobe

NERVOUS SYSTEM

____: functional unit of brain

• ____: contains nucleus

• ____: structure that receive signals from other neurons

• ___: structure that transmit signals to other neurons

• Myelin sheath and Nodes of Ranvier are beneficial how?

• neuron

• soma

• dendrites

• axons and axon terminals

• for fast signal conduction

____: cells of nervous system that protect/support neurons

• do these cells transmit signals?

• neuroglia in CNS?

• neuroglia in PNS?

• which neuroglial cells produce myelin sheath?

• neuroglia

• no

• microglia, ependymal cells, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes

• schwann cells, sattelite cells

• schwann cells

what nervous system disorder is due to demyelination, causing slow signal transmission?

multiple sclerosis

white matter VS grey matter GO:

• for transmitting info

• for processing info

• is what cerebral cortex is composed of

• does white matter surround grey matter or grey matter surrounds white matter?

• white matter

• grey matter

• grey matter

• white matter surrounds grey matter

LIMBIC SYSTEM (has 4 parts) GO:

• for homeostasis via using hormones in partner with pituitary gland

• hunger

• response to pain

• for memory

• “aggression center”

• produces feelings like anger, violence, fear, anxiety (BASICALLY the whole inside out crew EXCEPT for joy)

• sensory relay center (for all senses EXCEPT smell) to be processed before sent to cerebral cortex for interpretation

• hypothalamus

• hypothalamus

• hypothalamus

• hippocampus

• amygdala

• amygdala

• thalamus

• thalamus processes all senses except for?

• if hippocampus is destroyed, what happens?

• smell

• we cant form new memories but long term memories still retained

NEURON ACTION POTENTIAL PROCESS

1. Resting potential of neuron is ___ inside and ____ outside (due to Na+ and K+ being outside)

2. During an action potential, the charges ____ (so inside now positive and outside now negative) → this reversed charge travels down axon

3. ___ binds to Synaptic vesicles (carrying neurotransmitters) → causes synaptic vesicle to contract and move to ____

4. Neurotransmitters released via exocytosis and into ____

5. Neurotransmitter binds to ___ of target cell (either muscle, gland, or dendrite of another neuron)

   • Axon to ___ = action potential continues traveling through this neuron

   • Axon to ___ = causes muscle contraction

   • Axon to ___ = causes hormone release 

• negative

• positive

• reversed

• Calcium

• presynaptic membrane

• synaptic cleft

• postsynaptic membrane

• dendrite

• muscle

• gland

____: ability for brain to form neural connections to adapt to changes/new stimulants

• how does this change as we age?

• neuroplasticity

• decreases

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

• main function: ____ via working with nervous system

• Hormones are sent to EVERY body tissue but only CERTAIN target tissues respond to them

• are hormones secreted in large or small amounts?

• Uses chemical signals (called ____) which travel to target location to bind to receptor site on receptor protein  

• maintain homeostasis

• small

• ligands

Hormones can be transmitted by either:

• INTRAcellular: ____

• INTERcellular: ____

• within same cell

• cell to cell

INTERcellular hormone signaling types:

1. ____: released into environment 

2. ____: hormone secreted from neuron to aid in nervous system related stuff

3. ____: WITHIN SAME ORGAN but hormones affects same cell type 

4. ____: WITHIN SAME ORGAN but hormone affects another nearby cell type

• pheromones

• neurotransmitters and neuromodulators

• autocrine

• paracrine

Label what type of hormone transmission type these situations are:

• ex: prostaglandin release from tissue as inflammatory response 

• ex: insulin and somatostatin in pancreas

• autocrine

• paracrine

2 types of receptors used for hormone signaling:

1. ___: located within nucleus or cytoplasm

   • are these receptors for protein-based or lipid-based hormones?

2. ____: located on membrane

   • are these receptors for protein-based or lipid-based hormones?

• intracellular receptor

• lipid based

• membrane bound receptor

• protein based

Types of membrane bound receptors:

1. ___: for hormones 

   Ex: glycogen breakdown to provide energy for muscle contraction

2. ___: for ions; affects cell permeability 

   Ex: adrenaline/ACTh

3. ___: for enzymes; inhibits or permits enzyme production

• G-protein receptor

• Ion channel receptor

• Enzyme linked receptor

Are membrane bound receptors or intracellular receptors faster?

• membrane bound receptors

Cascade effect: chemical signal molecules rapidly activate many specific ____

• enzymes

3 regulations of hormone secretion:

1. ___(aka humoral stimulation)

2. ___

3. ___ (aka tropic hormones)

• blood

• neural

• hormones

Does Endocrine system use DUCTS or DUCTLESS glands?

• whats a benefit of this type of gland?

• ductless

• bc it allows faster delivery

IMMUNE SYSTEM

• Main function: immunity against pathogens

• which organ stops being active after puberty?

• thymus

the appendix is a organ belonging to which body system?

lymphatic

• what type of antibody functions as the Bcell receptor?

• After plasma cells (differentiated from Bcells) release antibodies, these antibodies can go 2 diff ways =

• igD

• attach onto pathogen or released into flowing bloodstream

• ____ “sound the alarm” when body is invaded —>____ activate cytotoxic Tcell and Bcells

• ____ are able to kill infected host cell (by recognizing a speck of a pathogen on the infected cell’s membrane)

• ___ “tag” invaders by secreting antibodies > then the invader is attacked by ___ (whereas cytotoxic Tcell kills infected host cell)

• macrophages

• helper Tcells

• cytotoxic tcells

• Bcells

• macrophage

All of these diseases are examples of…?

• Lupus (affects connective tissue, joints, kidneys)

• Type 1 diabetes (affects insulin producing cells @ pancreas).

• Graves' disease (affects thyroid)

• Rheumatoid arthritis (affects joints)

autoimmune disease

• ____: when  immune system works too well in response to allergen = therefore creates dramatic response 

allergies

• Mast cells:

  • attached to what type of cell?

  • they recognize matching antibodies (meaning pathogen has been “tagged” before) > they initiate inflammation response via releasing ____ (causing swelling + increased mucous production)

• HIV/AIDS destroys what type of immune cells?

  • as a result, this DESTROYS immune system

• HIV/AIDS common transmission is via sexual intercourse bc what type of immune cells are located in the semen/bodily fluid?

• WBC

• histamine

• helper Tcells and macrophages

• macrophages

• Skeletal system composed of what 3 things?

• how many bones do adults have?

• Axial skeleton consists of?

• Axial skeleton consists of?

• bones, ligament, cartilage

• 206

• skull, vertebral column, sternum, ribs

• appendages + pelvic girdle

• how many bones for upper extremities?

• how many bones for lower extremities?

• how many bones for pectoral girdle

• how many bones for pelvic girdle 

• how many bones for sternum and ribs

• how many total bones for vertebral column?

  • Cervical =

  • Thoracic =

  • Lumbar =

  • Pelvic =

• 60

• 60

• 4

• 2

• 25

• 26

• 7

• 12

• 5

• 2

3 bone layers from inner to outer?

• Compact bone: contains units called “___” = which contain living bone cells called “___”and mineral matrix

• What structures inside osteons hold bones’ blood vessels + nerves?

• osteons

• osteocytes

• haversian canal

BONE SHAPES

1. Long bones function?

2. Short bones

   • do these have a lot or minimal movement?

3. Flat bone function? 

4. Sesamoid bone

5. irregular bone

Long bone anatomy:

• ___: covers epiphysis

• ____: where bone growth occurs

  • made of mostly SPONGY bone and a little compact bone

• ___: “shell of bone”; the length of the long bone

  • made of COMPACT bone

• Medullary cavity:

  • contains red bone marrow (for _____)

  • yellow bone marrow (composed of ___ cells) 

• articulate epiphysis

• epiphysis

• diaphysis

• hematopoiesis

• fat cells

which of the 5 bone types’ composition is mainly spongy bone surrounded by less compact bone?

long bone

____: cartilage turns into bone via osteo____

• when does this first occur?

• this process starts at ___ of bones

____: process of bone being broken down via osteo____

• bone is constantly being broken down via bone resorption (= frees minerals from bone to enter circulation for body to use + clears out old bone tissue → replaces with new mineral deposits)

____: process of BOTH bone breakdown + bone formation

• ossification

• osteoblasts

• during embryonic development

• center

• bone resporption

• osteoclasts

• bone remodeling

____ (@ end of long bone) ossifies for a person to grow taller

growth plate

3 types bone cells:

1. Osteocyte: produces bone’s ____

2. ____(@ surface of bone; aka bone FORMING cells): differentiates into bone cells (osteocytes)

3. ____: (@ surface of bone; aka bone-REFORMING cells): dissolves bone 

• extracellular matrix

• osteoblasts

• osteoclasts

• what gives skeletal muscles its striated appearance?

• Despite the differences between cardiac VS skeletal VS smooth muscle, they all have what 4 things in common?

  • which of these things is the ability to respond to electric impulse?

  • which of these things is the ability to contract?

  • which of these things is the ability to stretch?

  • which of these things is the ability to return to OG shape after stretching?

• myosin

• excitability, contractibility, extensibility, elasticity

• excitability

• contractibility

• extensibility

• elasticity

skeletal muscle

• uni or multinucleated?

• shape?

cardiac muscle

• uni or multinucleated?

• shape?

smooth muscle

• uni or multinucleated?

• shape?

• multi

• elongated

• uni

• branched shape

• uni

• spindle shape

• Excitability of skeletal muscle is via ____

• Excitability of smooth muscle and cardiac muscle is via _____ and ____

• nervous system

• nervous system and hormones

label the muscle fiber (zline, Aline, Mline, Hzone, a actin myosin etc)

INSERT PIC

• Muscle needs to be attached to ____ in order to move that body part

• Muscles are composed of which of the 4 main types of tissue?

• Single Muscle fiber encased in ___ > bundled muscle fibers encased in ___ > bundled fascicles encased in ___ > strong CT called ___ holds everything together 

• ____ also protects muscles as they rub against bones 

• bone

• connective tissue

• endomysium

• fascicle

• perimysium

• epimysium

• epimysium

MUSCLE FIBERS

• ____: acts as cell membrane for muscle fiber

• ____: acts as cytoplasm for muscle fiber

• ____: contains CALCIUM which plays major role in whether muscle contracts or not

• Structure of muscle fiber from innermost to outermost:

  • ____ (smallest contractile unit within myofibril)

  • ___ (multiple of this makes up 1 myofibril)

  • ____ (made of multiple sarcomeres to function as contractile unit) 

• sarcolemma

• sarcoplasm

• sarcoplasmic reticulum

• sarcomere

• myofilament

• myofibril

SARCOMERE STRUCTURE

• 2 myofilament types are?

• ____ connect to Z-lines, wheres _____ doesnt connect to Z-lines

• ____ where one sarcomere ends and another sarcomere begins

• ____ is found at middle of I-band

• ____ is found at middle of A-band

• ____ is center of H-zone

• thin actin band and thick myosin band

• thin actin band

• I band

• A band

• H zone

• M line

LABEL SARCOMERE INSERT PIC

• Muscle contraction is explained via slide filament theory: ____ filament (moves) slides past ____ filament (doesnt move) which pulls actin filaments closer to

  ___ -line

• ^^^these sliding interactions happen bc of _____: myosin heads uses ATP to attach to actin filaments > pulling actin filament closer to M-line.

  • this cross bridge can only be repeated once another cATP attaches to myosin head 

• actin

• myosin

• M-line

• crossbridges

• what do ligaments attach?

• what does tendon attach?

• the location of where these 2 bones meet is called a JOINT

3 joint types:

1. ____: cant move

   • example?

2. ____: moves partially

   • example?

3. ____: moves freely

   • example?

• fibrous

• cartilaginous

• synovial

6 types of synovial joints?

• examples of synovial joints GO:

  • hip + femur

  • shoulder + humerus

  • ulna + radius (think: when flipping palm up and down)

  • inbetween finger carpals

  • knee

  • elbow

  • wrists

  • ankles

  • base of fingers

• ball and socket, pivot, gliding/plane, condyloid, hinge, saddle

• ball and socket

• ball and socket

• pivot

• condyloid

• hinge

• hinge

• gliding/plane

• gliding/plane

• saddle joint

Muscles have to work in PAIRS to allow movements at the joint

• flexor muscle (___ to cause bending) + extension muscle (___ to cause straightening)

• flexor

• relaxes

3 regions of skin:

• which is the most superficial?

• which is made of tough connective tissue?

• which is made of mainly adipose tissue?

EPIDERMIS features….

• keratinocytes functions?

• melanocytes function?

• langerhans cells function?

• Merkel cells function?

• waterproof ability + protection

• pigment

• immune system

• sensory

EPIDERMIS LAYERS

• List the 4-5 stratums of epidermis from most superficial to deepest?

• soles and palms have the 5th layer, which is called?

• Which layer is “youngest”  bc it's where constant mitosis is happening go to make new cells?

• which layer of skin contains nerves and blood vessels, which are responsible for sensation? 

• which later of skin contains hair follicles and sweat glands?

• As they reach the superficial surface, epidermal cells fill with keratin and then die —> the dead keratin forms which layer?

• stratum corneum > lucidum > granulosum > spinosum > basale

• stratum lucidum

• stratum basale

• dermis

• dermis

• stratum corneum

• dermis

• dermis has 2 layers:

  a. top layer =

  b. bottom layer =

eccrine VS apocrine VS sebaceous gland identification GO:

• @ armpit and pelvic area

• produce watery-fatty fluid in response to stress

• active since birth

• only active after puberty

• connected to hair follicle

• release sebum to waterproof skin

• @ all over body but mainly forehead, neck, palms/soles

• NOT connected to hair follicle

• produce sweat to cool down body temp

• @ everywhere except palms/soles

• apocrine

• apocrine

• eccrine

• apocrine and sebaceous

• sebaceous

• eccrine

• eccrine

• eccrine

• sebaceous

• which layer of the skin is responsible for elasticity (which decreases with aging)

• which layer of the skin provides energy for cells + insulation?

• dermis

• hypodermis (aka subcutaneous layer)

NAIL STRUCTURE

• ___= ur whole nail hard shell part

• ___= the overhang that we trim/file

• ___= skin layer underneath nail plate

• ___=white half moon

• ___= accumulated dead skin cells; anchors nail plate

• ___= nerves and blood vessels underneath the cuticle

• nail plate

• free edge

• nail bed

• lunula

• cuticle

• matrix

• Hair main function?

• hair originates which from skin layer?

• Parts of hair:

  • ____: what's visible above epidermis; not attached to follicle

  • ____: attached to hair follicle; located at dermis

  • ____: contains actively dividing BASAL cells; located at dermis

• insulation

• dermis

• hair shaft

• hair root

• hair bulb

Most tumors are harmless but can be bad when they ____ (= moved away from OG site and establish new tumors in other organs)

mestastisize

• which UV rays cause skin cancer?

3 types of skin cancer:

1. ___: most common + rarely metastasizes

   • which layer does this originate?

2. ____: second most common + more aggressive + can metastasize 

   • which layer does this originate?

3. ____: most fatal; uncontrollable overgrowth of melanocytes + can metastasize

   • which layer does this originate?

• UVA and UVB

• basal cell carcinoma

• stratum basale

• squamous cell carcinoma

• stratum spinosum

• malignant melanoma

• stratum basale

4 components of experimental design:

1. ____: this value can be manipulated; DOESNT depend on what happens in experiment 

2. ____: this value CANT be manipulated bc its the observed result'; desirable “outcome” of experiment

3. ____: group that doesnt receive treatment; gives us a “baseline” to compare the results to 

4. ____: receives treatment

• independent

• dependent

• control group

• experimental group