Infection Control Unit 1 Review

What is a Healthcare Associated Infection (HAI)?

An infection acquired during the delivery of care in any healthcare setting.

What is a nosocomial infection?

An infection acquired in a hospital setting.

What are the three requirements for pathogen transmission?

Source of reservoir, susceptible host with portal of entry, mode of transmission.

What is direct contact transmission?

Transmission of pathogens between individuals without a contaminated intermediate person, surface, or object.

What is indirect contact transmission?

Transmission of pathogens via a contaminated person, object, or surface.

What is respiratory transmission?

Inhalation of droplets greater than 5 micrometers, limited to 3 feet of the source.

What is airborne transmission?

Inhalation of droplet nuclei ranging from 1-5 microns, extending beyond 3 feet of the source.

What are standard precautions?

Precautions applied to contact with all potentially infectious materials, not just blood.

What are the three recommendations considered standards of care?

Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette, sharp safety, safe injection practices.

What are transmission-based precautions?

Precautions used when standard precautions do not completely interrupt pathogen transmission.

What are contact precautions?

Prevent transmission of pathogens spread by contact with an infected person, object, or surface.

What are droplet precautions?

Prevent transmission of pathogens by droplets through close respiratory or mucous membrane contact.

What are airborne precautions?

Prevent transmission of pathogens by droplet nuclei, requiring specific control measures.

What is the role of an infection prevention coordinator (IPC)?

To develop and maintain the infection prevention protocol and monitor its effectiveness.

What are the three criteria to infer the quality of infection control practices?

Structure, process, and outcome.

What is the purpose of immunoglobulins (IGs)?

To provide immediate, short-term protection (passive immunity) against infections.

What are live attenuated vaccines?

Vaccines that use a weakened form of the pathogen to induce an immune response.

What are subunit vaccines?

Vaccines prepared from fractional antigenic components of an organism.

What are nucleic acid vaccines?

Vaccines that introduce specific genetic material encoding target antigens for immune response.

What is the significance of boosters in vaccination?

Boosters provide rapid re-immunization and enhance long-term immunity.

What is the mode of transmission for Hepatitis B?

Bloodborne pathogen transmitted by contact.

What is the mode of transmission for HIV?

Bloodborne pathogen most readily transmitted across mucous membranes or parenterally.

What precautions are needed for measles (rubeola)?

Airborne and standard precautions, as it is transmitted via airborne droplets.

What is the mode of transmission for influenza?

Primarily through droplets generated by the mouth/nose.

What are the precautions for Varicella Zoster (chicken pox)?

Vaccine-preventable; airborne, contact, and standard precautions.

What is the mode of transmission for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Inhalation of droplets and droplet nuclei generated from the mouth/nose.

What is the condition associated with Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA)?

Usually skin infections transmitted through direct contact with infected wounds.

What is the role of antitoxins in the immune response?

They inactivate toxic microbial protein products.

What are opsonins?

Substances that facilitate phagocytosis of microorganisms.

What do neutralizing antibodies do?

They prevent the proliferation of microorganisms.

What are live attenuated viruses known for?

They tend to have higher rates of adverse effects, most commonly fever.

Who should not receive live attenuated virus vaccines?

Pregnant women unless there is immediate high risk involved.

What is the most common allergic component found in vaccines?

Egg protein, especially in vaccines prepared in chicken eggs.

What are the common routes of vaccine administration?

Subcutaneous (SC) or intramuscular (IM) injection.

What is a critical step when administering vaccines?

Aspirate to ensure the vaccine isn't given intravenously.

What can intravascular injection of a vaccine cause?

Increased adverse effects and reduced immune response.

What needle length is recommended for IM vaccine delivery containing aluminum phosphate?

1-1.5 inches long.

What are contraindications for live attenuated virus vaccines?

Chemotherapy, organ transplant recipients, corticosteroid therapy, and defects in cell-mediated immunity.

What is the major vaccine-preventable health hazard for OHCP?

Hepatitis B infection.

How is Hepatitis B virus primarily transmitted?

Through contact with blood and other potentially infectious materials (OPIM).

What are the symptoms of Hepatitis B infection?

Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, malaise, fever, dark urine, and jaundice.

What is the primary immunization schedule for Hepatitis B vaccine?

Two or three IM doses.

What is the recommended HBsAb value for immunity after Hepatitis B vaccination?

At least 10 mIU/mL.

What is the effectiveness of HBIG if administered within 1 week of exposure?

75% effective in preventing Hepatitis B infection.

What type of influenza virus causes seasonal flu?

Type A and type B influenza.

What is the incubation period for measles?

7 to 18 days.

What is the period of communicability for measles?

Begins about 4 days after rash formation.

What is the incubation period for mumps?

About 12 to 25 days.

What is the recommended vaccination for all OHCP against MMR?

Active immunization with the MMR vaccine, which is live attenuated.

What is the transmission route for varicella (chickenpox)?

Airborne droplets and contact with vesicular fluid.

What is the recommended vaccination for TDaP?

All OHCP should receive a TDaP vaccination every 10 years.

What is the most common cause of sexually transmitted infections?

High-risk HPV strains, particularly HPV 16 and 18.

What is the incubation period for Hepatitis A?

About 28 days.

What is the primary transmission route for Hepatitis A?

Fecal-oral route.

What is the role of hand hygiene in infection control?

It prevents the transfer of transient microorganisms responsible for HAIs.

What are the two categories of microorganisms?

Transient microorganisms and resident organisms.

What is the main purpose of standard precautions in healthcare?

To prevent or reduce the risk of disease transmission.

What is the recommended alcohol concentration for hand sanitizers?

60 to 95% ethanol solutions.

What is the main cause of irritant contact dermatitis in healthcare workers?

Frequent and repeated use of hand hygiene products.

What is the FDA's classification for antiseptic agents?

Category I, II, and III based on safety and effectiveness.

What is the recommended duration for surgical hand antisepsis?

2 to 3 minutes of scrubbing.

What is the primary action of ethanol as an antiseptic?

Denatures proteins and destroys transient microorganisms.

What is the significance of documenting immunization compliance?

It ensures that employees have documented evidence of immunity.

What is the role of PPE in healthcare settings?

To protect healthcare personnel from acquiring HAIs.

What are the hallmark symptoms of meningococcal disease?

Headache, fever, and stiff neck.

What is the recommended immunization for pneumococcal disease?

Two vaccines available, with a single dose recommended for those 65 years or older.

What are the general types of PPE recommended by the CDC?

Tongue depressors, dental instruments, floss, isolation gowns, examination gloves, and eye protection.

What is the classification of devices that require special labeling requirements?

Class II devices.

What types of devices fall under Class III?

Devices that pose the greatest risk, such as implantable pacemakers and heart valves.

What is required for Class III devices to ensure safety and effectiveness?

They must undergo scientific review by an expert panel.

What factors should be considered when selecting PPE?

Type of anticipated exposure, durability, and fit.

What is the purpose of surgical gowns in healthcare?

To protect OHCP from splash, spatter, and spray of blood or OPIM.

What class of medical device are surgical masks categorized as?

Class II medical devices.

What is the primary function of surgical masks?

To protect both the OHCP and the patient from infectious pathogens.

What must be worn when airborne precautions are necessary?

Particulate respirators (N95, N99, or N100).

What is the filtration efficiency of N100 respirators?

99.8% filtration efficiency.

What is the classification of goggles and face shields?

Class I medical devices.

What is the recommended sequence for putting on PPE?

Gown, mask, goggles/face shield, gloves.

What is the first step in the sequence for removing PPE?

Remove gloves first.

What is sterilization?

A validated process that destroys all forms of microbial life.

What does disinfection do?

Destroys some, but not all recognized pathogens.

What are the primary sterilizing methods used in healthcare?

Steam under pressure and dry heat.

What are germicides?

Agents that include both disinfectants and antiseptics.

What is the difference between disinfectants and antiseptics?

Disinfectants are applied to inanimate objects; antiseptics are applied to living tissue.

What are high-level disinfectants effective against?

All pathogens but NOT all bacterial spores.

What do intermediate-level disinfectants kill?

Mycobacteria, vegetative bacteria, most viruses, and fungi.

What is the role of cleaning in healthcare?

The physical action of scrubbing patient-care items with water and detergent.

What are detergents often referred to as?

Soap.

What should be done after cleaning patient-care items?

They should be rinsed with water to remove contaminants.

What is the minimum acceptable burn rate for surgical masks?

3.5 seconds (Class I rating).

What is the purpose of double gloving in surgical procedures?

To reduce the risk of contamination.

What should be done to prevent latex-related allergies?

Avoid powdered gloves, which were banned by the FDA in December 2006.

What is the significance of the front of a face shield?

It is considered contaminated, while the ties and headbands are clean.

What is the importance of fit in PPE?

PPE must fit the individual user to ensure proper protection.

What are the three categories of patient-care items according to Spaulding?

Critical, semi-critical, and non-critical

What defines critical patient-care items?

Items that penetrate soft and hard sterile tissues or the vascular system and confer a high degree of risk for infection.

Give an example of a critical patient-care item.

Surgical instruments, periodontal scalers, scalpel blades, burs, and explorers.

What is the required sterilization method for heat-tolerant critical items?

They must be sterilized.

What is the sterilization process for heat-sensitive critical items?

They may be sterilized in low-temperature sterilization processes or by an FDA-approved sterilant.

What are semi-critical patient-care items?

Items that contact but do NOT penetrate non-intact skin or mucous membranes.