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Last updated 5:52 PM on 3/16/26
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180 Terms

1
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A healthy adult has a glomerular filtration rate of approximately:

90-120 mL/min

<p>90-120 mL/min</p>
2
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Which nephron segment reabsorbs the largest percentage of filtered sodium and water?

Proximal convoluted tubule. Reabsorbs ~65–70% of filtrate.

<p>Proximal convoluted tubule. Reabsorbs ~65–70% of filtrate.</p>
3
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Which transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is responsible for sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption?

NKCC2

<p>NKCC2 </p>
4
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Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) primarily increases water reabsorption in which structure?

Collecting duct. ADH inserts aquaporin-2 channels.

<p>Collecting duct. ADH inserts aquaporin-2 channels.</p>
5
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<p>Which of the following stimulates renin release?</p>

Which of the following stimulates renin release?

Decreased renal perfusion (drop in BP and Sodium and increase in sympathetic tone)

<p>Decreased renal perfusion (drop in BP and Sodium and increase in sympathetic tone) </p>
6
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A patient with chronic kidney disease develops normocytic anemia.The most likely cause is decreased production of:

Erythropoietin

<p>Erythropoietin</p>
7
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Kidney produces EPO → stimulates RBC production.

CKD → anemia.

<p>CKD → anemia.</p>
8
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Which of the following is the most common cause of chronic kidney disease in developed countries?

Diabetes mellitus

<p>Diabetes mellitus </p>
9
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A hospitalized patient develops acute kidney injury. Urinalysis reveals muddy brown granular casts.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Acute tubular necrosis

<p>Acute tubular necrosis</p>
10
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A patient develops AKI after severe dehydration from vomiting.

This represents which type of renal failure?

Prerenal

<p>Prerenal </p>
11
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Which of the following is the best day to perform routine dental treatment for a patient on hemodialysis?

Day after dialysis

<p>Day after dialysis</p>
12
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A patient with renal failure is undergoing dialysis and requires tooth extraction. The increased bleeding risk is primarily due to:

Platelet dysfunction

<p>Platelet dysfunction</p>
13
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Which analgesic is preferred in patients with chronic kidney disease?

Acetaminophen

<p>Acetaminophen</p>
14
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A patient with an arteriovenous fistula for dialysis presents for dental care.

Which statement is correct?

Avoid fistula arm for BP

<p>Avoid fistula arm for BP</p>
15
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Kidney failure leads to decreased production of active vitamin D, which can result in:

Hypocalcemia

CKD → ↓ active vitamin D → ↓ Ca²⁺.

<p>Hypocalcemia</p><p>CKD → ↓ active vitamin D → ↓ Ca²⁺. </p>
16
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A patient recently received a kidney transplant 1 month ago and presents for dental treatment.

What is the best management?

Avoid elective dental treatment

<p>Avoid elective dental treatment </p>
17
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The kidneys receive approximately what percentage of cardiac output?

20-25%

<p>20-25% </p>
18
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The descending limb of the loop of Henle is primarily permeable to:

water

<p>water </p>
19
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Which transporter is responsible for sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the thick ascending limb?

NKCC2

<p>NKCC2 </p>
20
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<p>Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases water reabsorption by inserting which channel into the collecting duct?</p>

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases water reabsorption by inserting which channel into the collecting duct?

Aquaporin-2

<p>Aquaporin-2</p>
21
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Which of the following stimulates renin release from the juxtaglomerular cells?

Decreased renal perfusion

22
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Angiotensin II has which of the following effects on the kidney?

Constricts efferent arteriole

<p>Constricts efferent arteriole </p>
23
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Which hormone produced by the kidney stimulates red blood cell production?

Erythropoietin

<p>Erythropoietin </p>
24
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A major cause of anemia in patients with chronic kidney disease is:

Reduced erythropoietin production

<p>Reduced erythropoietin production</p>
25
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Which of the following is the most common cause of chronic kidney disease?

Diabetes mellitus

26
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Acute kidney injury is defined by which of the following changes?

Creatinine increase ≥0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours

<p>Creatinine increase ≥0.3 mg/dL within 48 hours</p>
27
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<p>Which of the following is an example of prerenal acute kidney injury?</p>

Which of the following is an example of prerenal acute kidney injury?

severe dehydration

<p>severe dehydration </p>
28
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Muddy brown granular casts" on urinalysis suggest:

Acute tubular necrosis

29
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Which condition is caused by reduced phosphate excretion in chronic kidney disease?

Hyperphosphatemia

<p>Hyperphosphatemia </p>
30
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Which dialysis method uses the peritoneal membrane as a filtration surface?

Peritoneal dialysis

<p>Peritoneal dialysis</p>
31
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Patients on dialysis often have increased bleeding risk primarily because of:

Platelet dysfunction due to uremia

32
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Which of the following is a common immunosuppressive drug used after organ transplantation?

Cyclosporine

<p>Cyclosporine</p>
33
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Dental treatment should generally be avoided during which period after organ transplantation?

first 3 months

<p>first 3 months</p>
34
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An arteriovenous fistula used for dialysis:

Does NOT require antibiotic prophylaxis

<p>Does NOT require antibiotic prophylaxis</p>
35
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Hemodialysis is usually performed:

3 times per week

<p>3 times per week</p>
36
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Dialysis is typically initiated in patients with:

ESRD with uremic toxin buildup

<p>ESRD with uremic toxin buildup </p>
37
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Which mineral imbalance commonly occurs in CKD?

Hyperphosphatemia

<p>Hyperphosphatemia </p>
38
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Chronic kidney disease is defined as kidney damage lasting longer than:

3 months

<p>3 months</p>
39
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A urinary obstruction causing kidney failure would be classified as:

postrenal

<p>postrenal </p>
40
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Acute tubular necrosis is classified as:

intrinsic renal

<p>intrinsic renal </p>
41
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Acute kidney injury (AKI) is defined as:

Abrupt decline in kidney function (GFR)

<p>Abrupt decline in kidney function (GFR)</p>
42
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What is the primary stimulus for erythropoietin release?

hypoxia

<p>hypoxia </p>
43
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Renin is released by which kidney cells?

Juxtaglomerular cells

<p>Juxtaglomerular cells </p>
44
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Which hormone is responsible for increasing sodium reabsorption in the collecting duct?

aldosterone

<p>aldosterone </p>
45
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ADH is released primarily in response to:

Increased plasma osmolality

<p>Increased plasma osmolality </p>
46
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Which nephron segment is the primary site of ADH action?

collecting duct

<p>collecting duct </p>
47
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A 67-year-old patient with poorly controlled diabetes and limited ability to climb stairs presents for dental extraction.

Which is the best management approach?

Treatment modification with possible medical consultation

<p>Treatment modification with possible medical consultation</p>
48
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Which strategy helps reduce medical risk during dental treatment?

Stress-reduction protocols

<p>Stress-reduction protocols </p>
49
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Which of the following represents a high-risk dental patient?

Recent myocardial infarction

<p>Recent myocardial infarction</p>
50
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Which of the following conditions is most likely to require medical consultation before dental treatment?

Uncontrolled diabetes

<p>Uncontrolled diabetes </p>
51
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A medical consultation should be requested when:

The disease status is unclear

The patient has unstable systemic disease

Dental treatment could worsen systemic disease

<p>The disease status is unclear</p><p>The patient has unstable systemic disease</p><p>Dental treatment could worsen systemic disease</p>
52
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Deviation of the tongue when protruded suggests dysfunction of:

CN XII

<p>CN XII </p>
53
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Weakness of facial muscles during smiling may indicate damage to:

CN VII

<p>CN VII </p>
54
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The corneal reflex is mediated by which nerve division?

CN V1

<p>CN V1 </p>
55
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Which cranial nerve is most important for facial sensation and mastication muscles?

CN V

<p>CN V</p>
56
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The cranial nerve responsible for smell is:

CN 1

<p>CN 1 </p>
57
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A lymph node that is soft, mobile, and tender is most likely associated with:

Acute infection or inflammation

<p>Acute infection or inflammation</p>
58
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A lymph node that is hard, fixed, and non-tender may indicate:

Possible malignancy

<p>Possible malignancy</p>
59
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Pallor observed in a patient may indicate:

anemia

<p>anemia</p>
60
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The four components of physical examination are:

Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

<p>Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation </p>
61
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If an arrhythmia is suspected, the pulse should be palpated for:

1 full minute

<p>1 full minute </p>
62
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Which of the following can influence pulse rate?

exercise, fever, anxiety

<p>exercise, fever, anxiety </p>
63
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Blood pressure should be measured with the patient's arm positioned:

at heart level

<p>at heart level </p>
64
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Before measuring blood pressure, the patient should sit quietly for at least:

5 minutes

<p>5 minutes </p>
65
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Which of the following tools assesses basic activities of daily living?

Katz ADL scale

<p>Katz ADL scale </p>
66
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Patients with <4 METs functional capacity may require which dental modifications?

Stress reduction protocols

<p>Stress reduction protocols</p>
67
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A patient who can climb one flight of stairs or walk uphill without stopping likely has a functional capacity of:

≥4 METs

<p>≥4 METs</p>
68
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Functional status primarily measures a patient's:

Ability to tolerate physiologic stress and perform daily activities

<p>Ability to tolerate physiologic stress and perform daily activities </p>
69
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A patient with unstable angina or decompensated heart failure is most likely classified as:

ASA IV

<p>ASA IV </p>
70
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Routine dental care is typically appropriate for which ASA classifications?

ASA I and II

<p>ASA I and II </p>
71
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A patient with severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating is classified as:

ASA III

<p>ASA III </p>
72
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A patient with well-controlled asthma or controlled diabetes would most likely be classified as:

ASA II

<p>ASA II </p>
73
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A healthy patient with no systemic disease is classified as:

ASA 1

<p>ASA 1 </p>
74
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Which of the following best describes the Review of Systems (ROS)?

Screening for possible undiagnosed disease using symptoms

<p>Screening for possible undiagnosed disease using symptoms </p>
75
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Medical histories should be obtained:

At the first visit and updated at every appointment

<p>At the first visit and updated at every appointment </p>
76
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Which of the following is the primary goal of obtaining a comprehensive medical history before dental treatment?

To ensure the benefits of dental treatment outweigh potential medical risks

<p>To ensure the benefits of dental treatment outweigh potential medical risks </p>
77
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A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue and burning of the tongue. Oral examination shows a smooth erythematous tongue and angular cheilitis. Laboratory findings reveal low ferritin and low hemoglobin.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Iron deficiency anemia

<p>Iron deficiency anemia </p>
78
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Which laboratory test is the most specific indicator of iron deficiency anemia?

ferritin

<p>ferritin </p>
79
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Iron deficiency anemia typically produces which RBC morphology?

Microcytic hypochromic

<p> Microcytic hypochromic</p>
80
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A 60-year-old woman presents with dysphagia, iron deficiency anemia, and esophageal webs.

What syndrome is most likely?

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

<p>Plummer-Vinson syndrome </p>
81
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Which oral manifestation is most commonly seen in pernicious anemia?

atrophic glossitis

<p>atrophic glossitis </p>
82
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Pernicious anemia results from deficiency of:

intrinsic factor

<p>intrinsic factor</p>
83
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A patient with pernicious anemia will most likely demonstrate which RBC change?

Macrocytosis

<p>Macrocytosis </p>
84
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Sickle cell disease results from mutation of which hemoglobin type?

Hemoglobin S

<p>Hemoglobin S </p>
85
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Which condition can precipitate a sickle cell crisis?

hypoxia

<p>hypoxia </p>
86
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Which dental management strategy is most appropriate for a patient with sickle cell disease?

minimize stress

<p>minimize stress</p>
87
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Which local anesthetic should be avoided in sickle cell disease?

prilocaine

<p>prilocaine </p>
88
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Radiographic examination of patients with sickle cell disease may show:

Hair-on-end pattern

<p>Hair-on-end pattern </p>
89
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Thalassemia is best described as a disorder involving:

Hemoglobin synthesis

<p>Hemoglobin synthesis </p>
90
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Which facial feature is commonly associated with thalassemia?

Maxillary enlargement

<p>Maxillary enlargement </p>
91
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Aplastic anemia is characterized by:

Pancytopenia

<p>Pancytopenia </p>
92
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Which oral finding may occur in aplastic anemia?

petechiae

<p>petechiae </p>
93
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<p>Neutrophils are primarily responsible for defense against: </p>

Neutrophils are primarily responsible for defense against:

bacterial infections

<p>bacterial infections </p>
94
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<p>Patients with neutropenia are most likely to develop: </p>

Patients with neutropenia are most likely to develop:

Severe periodontal disease

<p>Severe periodontal disease </p>
95
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Cyclic neutropenia occurs approximately every:

21-28 days

<p>21-28 days </p>
96
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Leukemia is defined as:

Malignancy of white blood cells

<p>Malignancy of white blood cells </p>
97
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Which oral manifestation is most characteristic of leukemia?

Gingival enlargement (specifically with AML; secondary is spontaneous bleeding)

<p>Gingival enlargement (specifically with AML; secondary is spontaneous bleeding) </p>
98
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Which type of leukemia progresses most rapidly?

Acute leukemia

<p>Acute leukemia </p>
99
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Which cell type is characteristic of Hodgkin lymphoma?

Reed-Sternberg cells

<p>Reed-Sternberg cells </p>
100
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<p>Which symptoms are known as B symptoms in lymphoma?</p>

Which symptoms are known as B symptoms in lymphoma?

Fever, night sweats, weight loss

<p>Fever, night sweats, weight loss </p>

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