CMS II Geriatrics: E2

5.0(2)
studied byStudied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/128

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 7:00 PM on 5/1/25
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

129 Terms

1
New cards

1. Pressure Injury (Ulcers)

1. Pressure Injury (Ulcers)

2
New cards

What is the pathophysiology of pressure injuries?

Pressure → Friction (breaks in skin surface) → Shearing forces (demoepidermal junction separates resulting in decreased tissue perfusion) → moisture (tissue breakdown)

3
New cards

What are the 4 most susceptible bony prominences for pressure injuries?

- Sacrum

- Heel

- Greater trochanter

- Ischial tuberosity

4
New cards

What are the normal changes in elderly skin?

- Thinning dermis and decreased vascularity

- Decreased elastin

- Loss of subQ fat

- Dec dermis/epidermal turnover

5
New cards

Qhat is included in wound assessment for pressure injury?

Location

Class/stage

Size

Base tissues

Exudates

Odor

Edge/perimeter

Pain

Infection evaluation

6
New cards

A ___% reduction in size over 2 weeks is a reliable predictive indicator of healing

20%

7
New cards

Which stage of pressure injury:

Intact skin with localized area of non-blanchable erythrema

Stage 1

8
New cards

ID a Stage 1 Pressure Ulcer

knowt flashcard image
9
New cards

Which stage of pressure injury:

Partial thickness skin loss, no subQ exposure

Note: May include intact/ruptured blisters

Stage 2

10
New cards

ID a Stage 2 Pressure Ulcer

knowt flashcard image
11
New cards

Which stage of pressure injury:

Full thickness skin loss that extends to the subQ tissue

Stage 3

12
New cards

ID a Stage 3 Pressure Ulcer

knowt flashcard image
13
New cards

Which stage of pressure injury:

Full thickness skin loss w/ extensive destruction exposing muscle, tendon, cartilage, or bone

Stage 4

14
New cards

ID a Stage 4 Pressure Ulcer

knowt flashcard image
15
New cards

What is a reliable predictor of healing for stage 3/4 pressure injuries?

Granulation tissue

16
New cards

What is a Deep Tissue Pressure Injury?

Persistent non-blanchable deep red or purple skin which can be intact or non-intact → can present as blood filled blisters

<p>Persistent non-blanchable deep red or purple skin which can be intact or non-intact → can present as blood filled blisters</p>
17
New cards

What is an unstageable ulcer?

Localized area of tissue necrosis covered with slough or escar

<p>Localized area of tissue necrosis covered with slough or escar</p>
18
New cards

What is a collection of viscous fibrinous dead tissue (pale, yellow to tan)?

Note: soft, moist avascular tissue

Slough

<p>Slough</p>
19
New cards

What is a collection of dead tissue that presents as a dry, dark scab?

Eschar

<p>Eschar</p>
20
New cards

Deep Tissue Pressure Injury vs. Unstageable Pressure Injury:

Appearance:

→ Persistent localized area of non-blanchabledeep red or purple skin.

→ Can also present as blood-filled blisters. (Can have epidermal separation → dark wound bed or blood-filled blister.)

→ Can be intact or non-intact.

Features:

→ Pain/temperature changes oftenprecede skin color changes.

→ Can evolve rapidly to reveal the actual extent of tissue injury -or- may resolve without tissue loss.

Cause:

** Caused by damage to underlying soft tissues.**

Intense and/or prolonged pressure and shear forces at the bone-muscle interface.

Deep Tissue Pressure Injury

<p>Deep Tissue Pressure Injury</p>
21
New cards

Deep Tissue Pressure Injury vs. Unstageable Pressure Injury:

Appearance:

→ Localized area of tissue necrosis covered with slough or eschar.

(AKA: debris/eschar covers the pressure ulcer.)

NOTES:

→ NEVER debride stable lesions.

→ The base of the ulcer needs to be visible in order to properly assess the stage… but it is not visible in this case, thus unstageable.

→ (It is possible for skin edges to be rolled w/ these, seen with the example photos.)

→ Slough = collection of viscous fibrinous dead tissue (pale yellow to tan in color).

→ Eschar = a collection of dead tissue that presents as a dry, dark scab.

Unstageable Pressure Injury

<p>Unstageable Pressure Injury</p>
22
New cards

What is pink/red moist tissue comprised of new blood vessels, collagen fibers, and fibroblasts?

Note: Appears Shiny and Moist

Granulation tissue

<p>Granulation tissue</p>
23
New cards

What is shiny, new, pink tissue/skin that grows in from the edges or as islands on a wound surface?

Epithelium

<p>Epithelium</p>
24
New cards

What is a dead space in a wound caused by erosion under the wound edges?

Note: Large wound with small opening

Undermining

25
New cards

What effects the fascial planes and is a narrow passageway deep within a wound?

Tunneling

26
New cards

What is the recommended solution when irrigating a pressure injury?

Normal Saline

27
New cards

What is thin, watery, clear/straw colored fluid?

Serous

28
New cards

What is thin, pale red/pink colored fluid?

Serosanguinous

29
New cards

What is thick, opaque, yellow/green fluid with an offensive odor?

Purulent

30
New cards

What amount of exudate: Small amount in center?

Slight

31
New cards

What amount of exudate: Contained within dressing?

Moderate

32
New cards

What amount of exudate: Extends beyond dressing on onto clothes?

Copious

33
New cards

What is defined as multiplication of organisms without invasion but interfering with wound healing?

Note: Wounds stagnate without obvious signs of infection

Critical colonization

34
New cards

Why is critical colonization concerning?

Can result in failure to heal, poor quality tissue, increased friability and increased drainage

35
New cards

What are the 4 phases of wound healing and their timing?

1. Hemostasis → immediately

2. Inflammatory → wound development up to 6 days

3. Proliferation → 4-24 days

4. Maturation (remodeling) → 21 days-2 yrs

<p>1. Hemostasis → immediately</p><p>2. Inflammatory → wound development up to 6 days</p><p>3. Proliferation → 4-24 days</p><p>4. Maturation (remodeling) → 21 days-2 yrs</p>
36
New cards

Which phase of wound healing is characterized by local vasoconstriction, formation of a platelet plug, clot formation and retraction, and fibrinolysis?

Note: Immediately after injury- minutes - hours

Hemostasis → when bleeding stops

<p>Hemostasis → when bleeding stops</p>
37
New cards

Which phase of wound healing is characterized by redness, swelling, warmth, phagocytosis and stimulation of growth factor?

Note: Beginning immediately, last up to 6 days

Inflammatory → chronic wounds can get stuck in this phase

<p>Inflammatory → chronic wounds can get stuck in this phase</p>
38
New cards

Which phase of wound healing is characterized by granulation formation, angiogenesis, collagen synthesis, epithelialization, and contraction of wound edges?

Note: Day 4-24

Proliferation

<p>Proliferation</p>
39
New cards

Which phase of wound healing is characterized by scarring, reorganization of collagen, and improvement of tensile strength?

Note: Begins - Day 21, can last up to 2 years

Maturation

<p>Maturation</p>
40
New cards

Which dietary recommendations should be made to pts with wounds?

Encourage protein, calorie-dense foods and fluids

41
New cards

2. Dizziness and Syncope

2. Dizziness and Syncope

42
New cards

Vertigo vs. Pre-Syncope vs. Disequilibrium vs. Syncope:

Rotational Sensation

Vertigo

43
New cards

Vertigo vs. Pre-Syncope vs. Disequilibrium vs. Syncope:

Impending faint

Pre-Syncope

44
New cards

Vertigo vs. Pre-Syncope vs. Disequilibrium vs. Syncope:

Feeling of imbalance of standing or walking

Diseuilibrium

45
New cards

Vertigo vs. Pre-Syncope vs. Disequilibrium vs. Syncope:

Sudden, transient loss of postural tone & consciousness (not d/t trauma); spontaneous full recovery

- Loss of postural tone and consciousness with spontaneous recovery

Syncope

46
New cards

What is the MC Peripheral Vestibular Disorder?

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)→ brief spells brought on by changes in position

calcium debris (canalithiasis) within semicircular canals causes movement of endolymph and results in spinning sensation

47
New cards

How is Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV) diagnosed and treated?

Diagnosis → Dix-Hallpike

Treatment → Epley maneuver

48
New cards

What is a positive Dix-Hallpike?

Nystagmus

Vertigo

Fatiguing of sx

Confirming BPPV

49
New cards

What is a positive Head Thrust?

Eyes cannot remained fixated

50
New cards

What is a positive Fukunda?

Sway >30 degrees toward affected side indicates unilateral vestibular lesion or acoustic neuroma

51
New cards

Which dx is characterized by repeated episodes of tinnitus, fluctuating hearing loss with sensation of fullness in ears, and severe vertigo?

Meniere's disease → tx w salt restriction and diuretics

52
New cards

Which stage of Meniere's:

Sudden unpredictable vertigo, hearing loss and tinnitus with hearing returning between attacks?

Early

53
New cards

Which stage of Meniere's:

Vertigo attacks are less severe, hearing loss and tinnitus worsening with periods of remission?

Middle

54
New cards

Which stage of Meniere's:

Less frequent vertigo with worsening hearing loss and tinnitus and problems with balance?

Late

55
New cards

What is the MC brain tumor associated with dizziness?

Acoustic Neuroma

56
New cards

What are the s/sx of Acoustic Neuromas?

Unilateral cochlear symptoms (tinnitus and hearing loss)

57
New cards

What are the MCC of presuncope?

Cerebral Ischemia secondary to:

-Orthostatic hypotension

-Cardiac causes

-Dehydration

-Medications

-Vasovagal attack

-Autonomic dysfunction secondary to diabetes

-Parkinsonism

Postprandial hypotension

58
New cards

What are the MCC of syncope?

- Cardiac

- Electrical

- Structural

- Vascular causes

- Postural change

- Post-prandial hypotension → decreased in systolic BP >20 mmHg 1-2 hrs after a meal

59
New cards

What factors are associated with Disequilibrium?

- Proprioceptive disorders → Peripheral Neuropathies

- Visual probs → cataracts, macular degeneration

- MSK disorders → RA, OA, weakness

- Gait disorders → Stroke, Parkinson's

60
New cards

What med classes are most associated with dizziness in the elderly?

Antihypertensives

Psychotropic meds

Aminoglycosides

NSAIDs

61
New cards

What are the 3 provocative tests of the vestibular system?

1. Dix-Hallpike

2. Head-thrust test

3. Fukuda stepping test → difficult if weakness or gait disorder present

<p>1. Dix-Hallpike</p><p>2. Head-thrust test</p><p>3. Fukuda stepping test → difficult if weakness or gait disorder present</p>
62
New cards

Other than provocative tests should always be performed on PE when evaluating dizziness?

BP

Cardiac exam

Balance and gait

Audiometry

Tilt table test

Lab testing

63
New cards

If dizziness is long-standing and lasts more than several months, what other conditions should you consider?

Psychological

64
New cards

How does aging affect the baroreflex?

Decreased ability to increase HR in response to sympathetic stimulation → Syncope

65
New cards

What is the pathophys of syncope?

reflex mechanisms are less responsive → decreased ability to increase HR in response to sympathetic stimulation and increased sensitivity to effects of dehydration and vasodilator drugs

66
New cards

Which comorbidities affect postural responses?

DM

Arrhythmia

AS

MI

67
New cards

Which drugs can impair postural reflexes?

Vasodilators

Antidepressants

Alpha/beta blockers

TCAs

68
New cards

Which cause of syncope:

Sudden, occurs in any position, no precipitant, blue/ashen skin, faint/absent pulses, rapid recovery?

Syncope caused by Arrhythmia

69
New cards

Which cause of syncope:

Aborted if person lies flat, nausea/diaphoresis precipitant, visual changes, pale and motionless, fatigue/nausea/diaphoresis on recovery without retrograde amnesia?

Vasovagal Syncope

70
New cards

Which cause of syncope:

Occurs in any position without warning, rigid tone, rapid pulse and high BP, tonic eye deviation, frothing at mouth, incontinence, slow recovery?

Seizure

71
New cards

Why do we obtain an EKG in all adults with syncope?

Assess for:

- Acute or remote MI

- Conduction abnormalities and pre-excitation

- Sinus bradycardia

- Prolonged QT

72
New cards

What is the tx for syncope caused by Orthostatic HypOtension?

Adjust meds

Ensure adequate volume

Other conservative measures (stockings)

73
New cards

What is the tx for vasovagal syncope?

Avoidance of triggers; medical therapy is somewhat controversial (BB, clonidine, paroxetine, midodrine)

74
New cards

What is the tx for Carotid Sinus Hypersensitivity induced syncope?

Avoid stimulating factors (tight collars or rapid neck movements); pacemaker

75
New cards

What is the tx for syncope due to Post Prandial Hypotension?

Avoid alcohol and high carb meals

Remain recumbent after meals

76
New cards

What is the tx for syncope due to ventricular tachyarrhythmia?

Implanted defribrillator or medical tx

77
New cards

What is the tx for syncope due to bradyarrhythmia?

Pacemaker

78
New cards

3. Urinary Incontinence

3. Urinary Incontinence

79
New cards

What is the sympathetic control of normal micturition?

Urine storage → inhibits detrusor contraction and increases sphincter contraction

80
New cards

What is the parasympathetic control of normal micturition?

Voiding → induces detrusor contraction and sphincter relaxation

81
New cards

What are the age-related urinary tract changes?

Detrusor muscle function decreases → fibrosis of bladder wall and increased sensitivity to neurotransmitter

Leads to →

Decreased bladder capacity

Detrusor instability

Decreased urinary flow rate

Decreased voided volume

Increased PVR

82
New cards

What are the transient causes of urinary incontinence?

Hint: DIAPPERS:

- Delirium

- Infection

- Atrophic vaginitis/urethritis

- Pharmaceuticals

- Psych probs

- Excessive urine output

- Restricted mobility

- Stool impaction

83
New cards

What is the MC type of incontinence in the geriatric population?

Urge incontinence

84
New cards

What is the leakage of urine along w/ or before the urge to void (MC in older population)?

Urge incontinence

85
New cards

What is the leakage of urine w/ increased intra-abdominal pressure in absence of bladder contraction?

Stress incontinence

86
New cards

What is the continuous leakage of urine, dribbling, incomplete emptying, "bedwetting"?

Overflow incontinence

87
New cards

What type of incontinence is where the patient is physically unable to toilet themselves in a timely fashion despite intact storage and emptying function?

Functional incontinence

88
New cards

What nonpharm treatments for incontinence have high rates of satisfaction?

- Bladder training

- Biofeedback

- Pelvic muscle exercises

89
New cards

What are the primary causative mechanisms associated with Stress incontinence?

- Weak pelvic floor muscles

- ntrinsic sphincter deficiency

90
New cards

Who is Overflow Incontinence MC in?

Men → due to outlet obstruction and detrusor underactivity

PVR > 200 mL = inadequate emptying

91
New cards

Which Antimuscarinic needs dose adjustment in renal insuff?

Trospium

92
New cards

Which drugs are Antimuscarinincs? What are their side effects?

- Oxybutynin

- Tolterodine

- Trospium

- Darifenacin

- Solifenacin

- Fesoterodine

- Dry mouth, blurry vision, constipation, dental caries, cognitive

93
New cards

Which drug is a Beta 3 agonist? What are common SE?

Mirabegron (Myrebetriq)

Constipation, Diarrhea, HA, Dizziness, Nausea, Tachycardia, HTN, UTI

94
New cards

Urine storage is under what control?

Sympathetic

95
New cards

Voiding is under what control?

Parasympathetic

96
New cards

What is indwelling catheterization reserved for?

1. Short term decompression of acute urine retention

2. Chronic retention not surgically/medically remediable

3. Patients with wounds that must be kept clean of urine

4. Very ill/end of life pts

97
New cards

Why should catheterization be done with caution?

Significant morbidity → polymicrobial bacteriuria

98
New cards

4. Palliative Care

4. Palliative Care

99
New cards

Which protocol provides a framework for difficult discussions?

SPIKE

<p>SPIKE</p>
100
New cards

What is the main goal of palliative care? Which dx is it used for?

improve quality of life

Cancer, Failure to thrive, COPD/emphysema/ILD/IPF, advanced liver dz, stroke, CHF 3+, dementia, HIV/AIDS, parkinsons, ALS