Unit 3 BIO211 McGraw

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64 Terms

1
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Which is not an action of interferon?

It signals the immune system that the secreting cell is part of the body and so should not be attacked.

2
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Interferons are one of the classes of

cytokines.

3
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A membrane attack complex is a protein grouping that

forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis.

4
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In terms of their chemical structure, cytokines are _________blank; their function is to serve as _________blank.

proteins; chemical messengers

5
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T/F: Complement facilitates inflammation by activating basophils and mast cells and by attracting macrophages and neutrophils.

True

6
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"Complement" refers to a group of

plasma proteins.

7
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T/F: Cytokines are agents that affect neighboring cells without triggering systemic effects.

False

8
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T/F: High fevers can lead to protein denaturation and raise the likelihood of seizures.

True

9
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Which type of cell attacks a variety of unwanted cells and causes those cells to undergo apoptosis?

Natural killer cells

10
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Exudate is

fluid that leaves capillaries to "wash" the interstitial space of an injured tissue.

11
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T/F: Bacteria are eukaryotic microbes, some of which are pathogenic.

False

12
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Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

Numbness

13
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Inflammation is a(n)

nonspecific process that occurs in vascularized tissue.

14
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If someone had a cut in their skin through which a bacterium entered, but that bacterium was then destroyed by a neutrophil, this would be an example of

failed external innate immunity, but successful internal innate immunity.

15
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A membrane attack complex is a protein grouping that

forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis.

16
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Interleukin 1 and interferons act as

pyrogens and trigger an elevation of body temperature.

17
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Inflamed tissue feels warm due to

increased blood flow and increased metabolic activity.

18
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Which type of cell is the most effective to attack parasitic worms such as tapeworms?

Eosinophils

19
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T/F: Eosinophils and lymphocytes are both types of leukocytes.

True

20
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Which of the following lists the body's first, second, and third lines of defense in order?

External innate immunity, internal innate immunity, adaptive immunity

21
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T/F: One of the goals of an inflammatory response is to prevent the spread of an infection.

True

22
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Active immunity requires

direct encounter with the antigen.

23
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T/F: Both active and passive immunity can be acquired though natural or artificial means.

True

24
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T/F: Over their life span, plasma cells produce hundreds of millions of antibodies against one specific antigen.

True

25
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Helper T-lymphocytes are also known as

CD4+ cells.

26
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Which type of cell responds to multiple antigens?

Natural killer cell

27
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The immunity that occurs as a result of a vaccination is _________blank immunity.

active

28
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T/F: Helper T-lymphocytes primarily contain the CD8 coreceptor.

False

29
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Activation of a CD4+ cell requires an APC to present antigen with

MHC class II protein.

30
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Once a helper T-lymphocyte recognizes an antigen, it begins the immune response by secreting chemical signals called

cytokines.

31
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T/F: Some antibodies cross the placenta.

True

32
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T/F: After maturation, T lymphocytes tend to remain in the same lymphoid structure for life.

False

33
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An individual gets a snake bite and goes to the hospital to receive antibodies against the venom. This individual is acquiring

passive immunity.

34
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MHC class I molecules present peptide fragments that are either "self" or "nonself"; in either case, the fragment becomes bound to the molecule while

in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

35
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MHC class I molecules on a cell allow it to interact with

cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.

36
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Passive immunity lasts

from days to weeks, and does not involve development of memory cells.

37
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Helper T-lymphocyte activation involves the

CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen-presenting cell.

38
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Which type of antibody is formed in response to parasitic infections and allergies, and has the effect of activating mast cells and basophils?

IgE

39
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The most prevalent antibody in blood and lymph is

IgG.

40
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Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by releasing

perforin and granzymes.

41
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As T-lymphocytes leave the thymus, they are

naive and immunocompetent.

42
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Which cell type is targeted by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

Helper T-lymphocyte

43
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B-lymphocyte activation involves stimulation from

IL-4 released by helper T-lymphocytes.

44
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Antigen-presenting cells are _________blank, and they display antigens to both _________blank and _________blank.

immune cells; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes

45
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The function of helper T-lymphocytes is to

initiate and oversee the immune response.

46
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The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the alveoli and blood in the lungs is called

pulmonary gas exchange.

47
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T/F: Consistent with Boyle’s law, air flows from a region of lower pressure (the atmosphere) into a region of higher pressure within the lungs.

False

48
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Airflow is _________blank related to the pressure gradient and _________blank related to resistance.

directly; inversely

49
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During quiet expiration,

thoracic cavity volume decreases.

50
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Which is not a function of the respiratory system?

Sound reception

51
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The expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume equals the

functional residual capacity.

52
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Which of the following has the highest partial pressure of carbon dioxide?

The systemic cells

53
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The carotid bodies contain _________blank chemoreceptors that respond to changes in _________blank.

peripheral; blood concentrations of H+  and  O2

54
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Compared to its partial pressure in the atmosphere, oxygen's partial pressure in the alveoli is

lower.

55
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When central chemoreceptors detect a drop in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid,

medullary respiratory centers trigger an increase in rate and depth of breathing.

56
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Contraction of these muscles depresses the ribs, but only during forced exhalation.

Internal intercostals

57
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During quiet expiration,

thoracic cavity volume decreases.

58
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Which statement accurately describes pulmonary gas exchange of oxygen?

Oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen.

59
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T/F: When a partial pressure gradient exists for a gas, it will move from the area of its lower partial pressure to the area of higher partial pressure.

false

60
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Compared to carbon dioxide, oxygen has a relatively _________blank solubility coefficient and so requires a _________blank partial pressure gradient to help diffuse the gas into the blood.

low; large

61
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The amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inspiration is the

inspiratory reserve volume.

62
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You may have noticed that after a large meal you have had some difficulty breathing. Which explanation is most accurate with regard to this situation?

A full stomach impedes contraction of the diaphragm, limiting inhalation.

63
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Air flows out of the body during expiration because

intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.

64
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At rest, a normal person breathes about _________blank times per minute.

12

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