Antiarrhythmics- Austin and his student

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What adrenergic receptor controls the heart?

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69 Terms

1

What adrenergic receptor controls the heart?

b1

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2

T/F The atria and ventricles contract independently of each other.

T

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3

What is the missing step in the following conduction pathway?

  1. SA nodes serves as pacemaker

  2. atria contract

  3. signal _________________

  4. conduction then spreads rapidly/uniformly

  5. ventricular contraction

signal delayed at AV node

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4

Answer the following about electrolyte channels and cardiac APs:

Electrolyte

in or out of the cell

depolarize or polarize

K+

Na+

Ca2+

Electrolyte

moves in or out of the cell

depolarize or polarize

K+

out

polarize

Na+

in

depolarize

Ca2+

in

depolarize

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5

T/F: All muscle cells in the body contain a plateau phase in their AP.

F- cardiac myocytes ONLY MUSCLE W/ plateau

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6

What node is the most important for normal heart rate control?

SA node

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7

SA node is influenced primarily by the slope of phase ___ depolarization.

4

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8

How does sympathetic activation effect heart rate, threshold potential, action potentials, and depolarization?

  • Heart rate= INCREASE

  • Threshold potential= DECREASE

  • Action potential duration= SHORTER

  • Depolarization= FASTER

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9

Arrhythmias may be caused by…

  • anatomical defects

  • electrolyte imbalances

  • ischemia

  • stress

  • caffeine, smoking, decongestants

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10

What are the symptoms of arrhythmias?

  • Dyspnea (SOB)

  • Dizziness

  • Fatigue

  • Syncope

  • Angina

  • Palpitations

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11

What is the difference between a tachyarrhythmia and a bradyarrhythmia?

tachyarrhythmia- increased firing rate (>100 bpm)

bradyarrhythmia- decreased firing rate (<60 bpm)

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12
<p>Be familiar with this chart</p>

Be familiar with this chart

knowt flashcard image
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13

Example Q using the chart:

If I had acute supraventricular tachycardia, the arrhythmia would stem from the _____________.

a. atria

b. SA node

c. AV node

d. ventricle

c

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14

What is the importance of the QT interval?

represents ventricular depolarization

  • fastest way to die

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15

Above what QTc level would cardiac arrest or a lethal arrhythmia like Torsades de pointes occur?

a. QTc > 510 mS

b. QTc >470 mS

c. QTc >450 mS

d. QTc >525 mS

a. QTc > 510 mS

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16

What classes of drugs can cause a prolonged QT interval?

  • antipsychotics

  • antidepressants

  • antibacterials

  • antiarrhythmics

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17

What 3 things can you use to treat arrhythmias?

  • Implantable cardioverter defibrillators (ICD)

    • used in high death risk

    • constant monitor for v-fib and v-tach

  • Catheter ablation

    • catheter heat destroys abnormal tissue

  • Drugs

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18

The Vaughn-Williams classification system is used for antiarrhythmic drugs. Fill in the following table:

Classification of Drug

Mechanism of Action

Ia

____ channel blocker

Ib

____ channel blocker

Ic

_____ channel blocker

II

_______ blocker

III

_____ channel blocker

IV

_____ channel blocker

Classification of Drug

Mechanism of Action

Ia

Na+ channel blocker

Ib

Na+ channel blocker

Ic

Na+ channel blocker

II

b-adrenergic blocker

III

K+ channel blocker

IV

Ca2+ channel blocker

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19

What drugs belong to class II antiarrhythmics?

b-blockers

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20

B-blockers inhibit phase ___ depolarization.

4

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21

What structure of the heart do beta-blockers effect?

SA and AV nodes

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22

What arrhythmias are b-blockers particularly useful for?

  • exercise-induced arrhythmias

  • stress-induced arrhythmias

  • post-MI arrhythmias

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23

Common ADRs of Class II antiarrhythmics/ b-blockers:

  • bradycardia

  • hypotension

  • bronchospasm in non-selective bb’s

  • heart block

  • insomnia, depression

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24

Can Class II and Class IV antiarrhythmics be combined to treat arrhythmias?

  • For example, can I combine diltiazem and metoprolol?

NO!

  • increases risk of HF= too much shutdown

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25

Which class of antiarrhythmics inhibits sympathetic input to pacing regions of the heart?

II

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26

Which class of antiarrhythmics block open calcium channels to slow conduction in tissues dependent on Ca2+ current?

IV

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27

What structure of the heart do non-DHP CCBs effect?

SA and AV nodes

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28

What are the ADRs of Class IV antiarrhythmics aka non-DHPs?

  • AV nodal block

  • HA, fatigue, dizzy

  • nausea, constipation

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29

Which of the following is true regarding Class II and Class IV antiarrhythmics?

SATA

a. both effect the SA and AV nodes

b. both decrease CO

c. dangerous if used together

d. both decrease the slope of phase 0 depolarization

a, b, c

  • d is false- only Class IV decreases the slope of phase 0 depolarization

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30

What drugs belong to class Ia antiarrhythmics?

  • Disopyramide

  • Quinidine

  • Procainamide

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31

What drugs belong to class Ib antiarrhythmics?

  • Lidocaine

  • Mexiletine

  • Phenytoin (Ochs has this one on hers so i just added it here)

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32

What drugs belong to class Ic antiarrhythmics?

  • Flecainide

  • Propafenone

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33

What drugs belong to class III antiarrhythmics?

  • Amiodarone

  • Dronedarone

  • Dofetilide

  • Ibutalide

  • Sotalol

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34

Class I antiarrhythmics effect phase ___ of the cardiac action potential.

0

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35

Which classes are effective for supraventricular AND ventricular arrhythmias?

SATA

a. Class Ia

b. Class Ib

c. Class Ic

a, c

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36

Which classes are effective ONLY for ventricular arrhythmias?

SATA

a. Class Ia

b. Class Ib

c. Class Ic

b

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37

Which Class I subgroup has MODERATE Na+ channel blockage?

Ia

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38

Which Class I subgroup has WEAK Na+ channel blockage?

Ib

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39

Which Class I subgroup has STRONG Na+ channel blockage?

Ic

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40

What is the main ADR of the class Ia antiarrhythmic Disopyramide?

anticholinergic side effects

<p>anticholinergic side effects</p>
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41

What are the contraindications for each class Ia antiarrhythmic?

  • disopyramide

  • quinidine

  • procainamide

IN ALL: 2nd/3rd heart block

  • disopyramide- cardiogenic shock, QT prolongation

  • quinidine- thrombocytopenia, myasthenia gravis

  • procainamide- systemic lupus erythematous, torsade de pointes

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42

Which class Ia agent is an IV injection not an oral capsule?

Procainamide

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43

When is lidocaine, a class Ib agent, used?

IV injection used for refractory ventricular tachycardia and cardiac arrest

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44

What are the contraindications of Class Ib agents?

  • Lidocaine

  • Mexiletine

BOTH: 2nd/3rd degree heart block

  • Lidocaine- Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, corn allergy, amide-allergy

  • Mexiletine- cardio shock,

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45

What is a warning with Mexiletine?

Severe skin reactions (DRESS)

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46

What class I agent has some beta blocker activity?

propafenone

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47

Flecainide should be avoided in what?

chronic a-fib

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48

Class IC agents are contraindicated in what?

  • HF

  • MI

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49

Class III antiarrhythmics block K+ channels at phase ___ of the cardiac action potential.

3

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50

What class III antiarrhythmics are ONLY effective for supraventricular arrhythmias?

  • dronedarone

  • ibutilide

  • dofetilide

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51

What class III antiarrhythmics are effective for BOTH supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias?

  • amiodarone

  • sotalol

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52

What element does amiodarone contain that could potentially cause thyroid problems?

iodine

<p>iodine</p>
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53

Amiodarone and Dofetilide are the drugs of choice with what comorbidity?

HF

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54

What are the BBW for amiodarone?

  • pulmonary toxicity

  • hepatotoxicity

  • proarrhythmic affects

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55

In addition to the the BBW for amiodarone, what are some of the other warnings?

  • thyroid dysfunction

  • visual impairment

  • photosensitivity

  • neuropathy

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56

When starting amiodarone what do we do to digoxin?

decrease dose by 50%

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57

When starting amiodarone what do we do to warfarin?

decrease warfarin dose by 30-50%

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58

Amiodarone is inhibitors of what CYP enzymes?

  • CYP2C9

  • CYP2D6

  • Pgp

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59

What are the boxed warnings of Dronedarone?

  • a-fib: increased risk of death, stroke, HF

  • HF: increased risk of death

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60

What are the contraindications of Dronedarone?

  • permanent a-fib

  • HF

  • QTC >500

  • bradycardia

  • use of CYP3A4 inhibitors

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61

Although Sotalol is a class III agent, it has some class ___ activity since it’s a nonselective beta-blocker.

II

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62

Ibutilide is an IV formulation only indicated for what?

cardioversion to normal sinus rhythm

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63

What must be corrected before beginning Ibutilide?

hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia

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64

Dofetilide must be initiated with continuous monitoring for ____ hours.

72

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65

Dofetilide is contraindicated in…

QTc>440

CrCl <20

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66

Initiation of which drugs must be done under observation?

dofetilide and sotalol

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67

Does Digoxin deal with rate or rhythm control?

RATE

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68

What does digoxin block?

Na-K-ATPase Pump

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69

How do Digoxin and Adenosine effect the heart?

slow conduction through AV node

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