Exam 2 Review: Urinary/Renal and Respiratory System

This collection of flashcards covers essential concepts from the urinary/renal and respiratory systems, as studied in the review for Exam 2.

What happens to kidney function as people age?

There is a gradual decline in kidney function, leading to decreased GFR and reduced bladder capacity.

At what age is kidney function about half of its original capacity?

By age 60.

What is Epoetin Alfa (Epogen)?

It is the synthetic version of the hormone erythropoietin, which stimulates RBC production.

What condition can occur due to impaired renal function in patients?

Anemia, due to insufficient production of erythropoietin.

What is a common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

Usually caused by E. coli.

What are the signs and symptoms of upper UTIs?

Fever, chills, flank pain, and systemic manifestations.

What are the signs and symptoms of lower UTIs?

Urinary frequency, urgency, dysuria, nocturia, and confusion in older patients.

What is pyelonephritis?

It is inflammation of the renal parenchyma and collecting system.

What are the complications of pyelonephritis?

Permanent kidney damage, renal failure, urosepsis, and septic shock.

What are some clinical signs of pyelonephritis?

Fever, chills, malaise, fatigue, tachycardia, tachypnea, flank pain, and CVA tenderness.

What is cystitis?

Inflammation of the bladder.

What is a crucial aspect of management for cystitis?

Early treatment to prevent ascending infections.

Name some interventions for managing cystitis.

Antibiotics, pain relief, hydration, cranberry juice, and avoiding bladder irritants.

What does a clean catch urine specimen involve?

Wiping, starting urination, passing the cup into the stream, and closing the container.

What is peritoneal dialysis?

A procedure that uses a catheter placed in the peritoneal cavity to remove waste and maintain electrolyte balance.

What should be monitored in peritoneal dialysis?

The color of outflow should be clear or light yellow; report cloudy outflows.

What is hemodialysis?

A procedure that filters waste from blood outside the body using a dialyzer.

What access point is commonly used for hemodialysis?

An AV fistula.

What is a major complication to monitor for during hemodialysis?

Hypotension, signs of infection, and monitoring RBCs.

What is Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome?

A neurological complication due to rapid urea removal leading to cerebral edema.

What are signs of Dialysis Disequilibrium Syndrome?

Headache, confusion, agitation, seizures, and nausea.

What is glomerulonephritis?

Inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidney.

What diagnostics are used for glomerulonephritis?

Urinalysis, CBCs, BMPs, elevated creatinine and BUN, proteinuria, and hematuria.

What are some nursing interventions for glomerulonephritis?

Rest, I&Os, weights, sodium and fluid restriction, diuretics, and antibiotics.

What is the primary role of the kidneys regarding potassium?

Excreting the majority of potassium in the body.

What should be managed in patients who have renal failure?

Diet restrictions and potassium-eliminating medications.

What is End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD)?

Severe kidney damage with GFR less than 15, requiring dialysis.

What dietary restrictions are advised for ESRD patients?

Low sodium and low potassium.

What foods should CKD or ESRD patients avoid due to high potassium?

Bananas, potatoes, tomatoes, and oranges.

What is hypoxia?

Decreased oxygen in the tissues.

What are early signs of hypoxia?

Restlessness, irritability, and anxiety.

What is hypoxemia?

Decreased oxygenation in the blood.

How is hypoxemia diagnosed?

Using arterial blood gases (ABGs).

What are the features of a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy?

1-6 L/min flow rate, delivering approximately 24-44% O2.

What is the purpose of a simple face mask in oxygen therapy?

Used for short-term, emergency situations.

What is the flow rate and oxygen delivery percentage of a partial rebreather mask?

6-10 L/min with approximately 90% O2 delivery.

What is the highest delivery method for oxygen therapy?

Non-rebreather mask at 10-15 L/min, delivering 95-100% O2.

What is the significance of a Venturi mask?

Delivers precise amounts of oxygen percentage.

What is eupnoea?

Normal breathing rate and pattern.

What is tachypnoea?

Increased respiratory rate.

What is the primary characteristic of COPD?

Chronic inflammation and narrowing of airways.

What are common risk factors for COPD?

Air pollution, smoking, secondhand smoke, exposure to chemicals or fumes.

What are some common symptoms of COPD?

Coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, clubbing, barrel chest.

What is the tripod position?

Leaning forward with arms propped to ease breathing.

What characterizes emphysema?

Destruction of alveolar walls leading to reduced surface area.

What are common symptoms of pneumonia?

Altered mental status, crackles, dyspnea, chest pain, cough with sputum.

How is pneumonia diagnosed?

Elevated WBC, positive sputum culture, chest x-ray, ABGs.

What are the signs and symptoms of acute respiratory failure?

SOB, decreased BP, extreme fatigue, confusion, hypoxia, and rapid labored breathing.

What is the role of the influenza vaccine?

Vaccination every year after 6 months of age for prevention.

What are droplet precautions used for?

Preventing transmission of infections like pertussis, influenza, and meningitis.

What are the indications for bariatric surgery?

BMI ≥40 or ≥35 with weight-related comorbidities.

What deficiency is a risk after bariatric surgery?

B12 deficiency and pernicious anemia.

What are signs of pernicious anemia?

Beefy red, sore, or burning tongue (glossitis).

What should be done prior to a barium swallow procedure?

Patient should be NPO for 8 hours.

What is GERD?

Backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus causing pain and mucosal damage.

What are common treatments for GERD?

Antacids, H2-receptor antagonists (e.g. Famotidine), and PPIs (e.g. Omeprazole).

What is peptic ulcer disease?

Erosion of the mucosa in the stomach and duodenum.

What are the major risk factors for peptic ulcer disease?

H. pylori infection and chronic NSAID use.

What should be avoided during the care of a patient with a peptic ulcer?

NSAIDs, caffeine, smoking, and alcohol.

What should be done when inserting an NG tube?

Have the patient drink water to help position it correctly.

How should NG tubes be verified for placement?

Using XRAY and checking pH of aspirated contents.

What is the goal of EGD post-care?

Prevent aspiration, monitor vitals, and check for GI bleeds.

What is stomatitis?

Inflammation of the mouth/lips, often a side effect of chemotherapy.

What is dumping syndrome?

Occurs when the stomach empties too quickly into the duodenum, leading to symptoms like hypotension and abdominal pain.