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Chlamydia
The primary route of transmission of this disease is through sexual contact?
Chlamydia
What disease?
Intrapartum transmission can produce neonatal disease
Chlamydia
Infection can cause urethritis, endometritis, salpingitis, pelvic
inflammatory disease (PID), and perihepatitis in women and
urethritis, epididymitis, and proctitis in men?
Chlamydia
The most common signs of infection are mucopurulent cervicitis in women and urethritis in men?
MOMP
LPS
What conventional tests are used for detecting Chlamydia?
Gonorrhea
In men, ____________ manifests itself within 7 d of infection as acute urethritis,
with a penile discharge that ranges from scant, clear to copious and mucopurulent?
Gonorrhea
Symptoms of women with acute endocervical infection include vaginal
discharge and dysuria. The cervical os is friable and erythematous?
Gonorrhea
Transmission requires direct, usually sexual contact and the bacterium is transmitted more effectively from men to women than from women to men?
Gonorrhea
Intrapartum transmission can also occur,
producing disease in neonates?
Enriched media (Chocolate agar-based)
What conventional tests are used for detecting Gonorrhea?
Nucleic acid hybridization tests
Nucleic acid amplification tests
Two assay formats have been developed to detect Gonorrhea?
nonamplification-based nucleic acid hybridization
method
The first molecular-based assay for N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis was a _________that detected the rRNA with an acridinium-labeled single-stranded DNA probe?
- Urine from men and women
- Urethral swabs in men and women
- Endocervical swabs
Specimens that have been cleared for use in most NAATs include?
4 degrees C
One of the primary advantages of SCLVSs compared to urine is the lack of a
requirement for storage at______ after collection, facilitating screening at remote
sites?
M. tuberculosis
is an important cause of respiratory tract infections,
causing significant levels of morbidity and mortality?
Tuberculosis
The _______diagnosis may take prolonged periods, during which time infections can spread?
4.4 million
4, 000
The genome of M. tuberculosis has ________base pairs (bp) with about ________genes?
Smears and cultures
Fluorochrome staining
Kinyoun and Ziehl-Neelsen stains
Conventional test used in detecting Tuberculosis?
10^4 organisms/mL
At least ____________ are required to see mycobacteria in a smear, and even then, not all of those smears read as positive?
10^1 to 10^2 organisms/ mL
Cultures for M. tuberculosis are more sensitive than smears and can detect
____________of the specimen; however, they take time due to
the slow in vitro growth of the organism.
Xpert MTB/RIF Assay
The _____________is an automated in vitro diagnostic test using nested real-time PCR to detect MTB-complex and RIF resistance qualitatively?
rpoB
81
The primers in Xpert MTB/RIF assay test amplify a portion of the ______ gene containing the _____-base pair core region.
Xpert MTB/RIF Assay
__________simultaneously detects MTB-complex and RIF resistance by amplifying an MTB-complex specific sequence of the rpoB gene, which is probed with five molecular beacons (Probes A - E) for mutations within the rifampin resistance determining region (RRDR)?
2.0.
MTB DETECTED is reported when at least two probes result in Ct values
within the valid range and a delta Ct min (the smallest Ct difference between
any pair of probes) of less than?
39.0
36.0
The valid maximum cycle threshold (Ct) of _____for Probes A, B, and C and _____ for
Probes D and E are set for MTB/RIF data analysis
≤4.0
Rif Resistance NOT DETECTED is reported if the delta Ct max (the Ct
difference between the earliest and latest probe) is ______?
>4.0
Rif Resistance DETECTED is reported if the delta Ct max is?
High
What MTB result?
Ct is <16
Medium
What MTB result?
Ct is 16-22
Low
What MTB result?
Ct is 22-28
Very low
What MTB result?
Ct is >28
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
is an RNA virus that makes a
DNA copy of genomic RNA using its own virally encoded reverse
transcriptase?
HIV-2 is only transmitted
is a minor isolate found mainly in West Africa and is less pathogenic
than the other type of HIV causing more latent infections?
M- Major
O - Outlier
N - Non-M and Non-O
P
4 subtypes of HIV?
A-J
Group M is further divided into eight clades?
below 50 copies/mL
The goal of antiretroviral therapy is a viral load __________ of
blood, which is undetectable by most methods.
Fewer than 10,000 copies/mL
Patients who maintain viral levels at _________
the early stages of the infection are at decreased risk of progres- sion
to acute immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
2 to 8 weeks
3 to 4 months
Viral load should be determined before therapy is started, _______ after
therapy initiation to see the initial response, and then every _______- to
assess therapeutic effectiveness.
CD4
Viral load testing is performed in conjunction with determining ______ counts?
- PCR of integrated DNA (ROCHE AMPLICOR HIV MONITORTM V1.5 ASSAY)
- NASBA (NUCLISENS HIV-1 RNA QT ASSAY)
- bDNA (Versant branched DNA)
HIV in patient samples can also be detected by?
HIV-1 RNA testing
Quantitative _________in plasma has been the standard for monitoring drug therapy and HIV disease progression?
0.5 log10 unit
In order to be clinically relevant, viral load changes from one determination to another must vary by threefold?
Primary resistance mutations
________are those specific to a particular drug,
reduce the virus's susceptibility to that drug, and appear in the viral genome
shortly after treatment with that agent has begun?
Secondary resistance mutation
_____________ occurs when the virus tries to recover the
ability to replicate at a normal rate.
Secondary resistance mutation
do not affect the virus's susceptibility to the drug but rather help
the virus replicate in the presence of the drug when one of its replication enzymes is not
100% functional?
184
A mutation in codon _____ of the reverse transcriptase gene from ATG to GTG
results in an amino acid change from methionine to valine, or M184V → Resistance to cytidine analog, lamivudine.
Q151M
_____ located at the dNTP-binding site of reverse transcriptase, confers
resistance to reverse transcriptase inhibitors.