Module 9 quiz questions

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43 Terms

1
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What is the best definition of virulence factors in bacterial infections?

Molecules produced or strategies employed by disease-causing bacteria to infect and survive in the host

2
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Which phase of the bacterial growth curve is characterized by the upregulation of genes encoding toxins and degradative enzymes?

Stationary phase

3
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What is the purpose of adhesins in bacterial infection?

To mediate the attachment of the bacterium to the host and promote a close association with host cells

4
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What is the role of siderophores in bacterial survival?

To transfer lactoferrin and other iron-binding proteins

5
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What is the primary component of the matrix in biofilms?

Polysaccharides

6
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What stain or dye is commonly used to visualize biofilm formation?

Crystal violet

7
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What is the role of defensins in antimicrobial activity?

Depolarization of bacterial cell membranes

8
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How do capsules contribute to bacterial resistance against antimicrobial peptides (AMPs)?

They limit the diffusion of AMPs

9
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What are siderophores?

Low molecular weight proteins that have a high affinity for iron

10
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Which type of pili in Salmonella Typhimurium is involved in the formation of aggregates and biofilms?

Type 5 pili (curli pili)

11
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When a host cell ingests bacteria, the bacteria become enclosed in a membrane-bound compartment called a:

Phagosome

12
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One method pathogens use to evade the complement system and phagocytosis is by producing:

Capsules

13
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Why are encapsulated bacteria not necessarily serum-resistant?

Proteins can diffuse through the loose network of the capsules

14
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How do bacteria mimic host polysaccharides?

By producing capsules

15
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What is the function of glycosylation in bacterial pili?

It masks the antigenic sites of pili

16
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What advantage do encapsulated bacteria gain by preventing C3bBb formation on their surfaces?

Reduced formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC)

17
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What is the role of modified LPS in immune mimicry?

It allows the pathogen to evade detection by the host immune system

18
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What are the two categories of bacterial invasion pathways?

“Zipper” and “trigger”

19
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What are invasins?

Bacterial surface proteins

20
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What is the purpose of escaping the phagosome?

To avoid the hostile environment of the lysosome

21
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What is the effective host defense against bacteria that escape from the phagosome?

Cytotoxic T cell response or natural killer (NK) cell response

22
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What is the function of ActA in Listeria monocytogenes?

To recruit actin and form comet tails

23
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Which bacterial species exhibit actin-based motility similar to Listeria?

Shigella flexneri and Rickettsia spp.

24
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What are the two distinct developmental forms of Chlamydia bacteria?

Elementary body (EB) and reticulate body (RB)

25
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What are the two developmental forms of Coxiella burnetii?

Small-cell variant (SCV) and large-cell variant (LCV)

26
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How does Legionella pneumophila evade fusion with the lysosome within host cells?

By inhibiting lysosomal fusion

27
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How does Salmonella Typhimurium evade the host immune response and replicate inside host cells?

By preventing phagolysosomal maturation; by forming unique Salmonella-containing vacuoles; By triggering actin rearrangements in host cells; By delivering effectors that establish a growth-conducive environment

28
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How does Brucella evade acidic conditions within the phagolysosome?

By residing within membrane-bound vacuoles that do not fuse with lysosomes

29
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What are two enzymes produced by bacteria to neutralize reactive oxygen species?

Catalase and superoxide dismutase (SoD)

30
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What are the two main species of Salmonella?

Salmonella enterica and Salmonella bongori

31
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What are the two major types of Salmonella infections?

Nontyphoidal salmonellosis and enteric fever

32
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What does the "O" antigen of Salmonella refer to?

oligosaccharides found on the lipopolysaccharides

33
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Which antigen is associated with flagellar proteins in Salmonella?

H antigen

34
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Why is the Vi capsular polysaccharide vaccine not effective against non-typhoidal strains of Salmonella?

Non-typhoidal strains lack the Vi antigen

35
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When are antibiotics typically prescribed for salmonellosis?

In high-risk individuals or specific Salmonella strains

36
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What is the relationship between the genomic repertoire of Salmonella and the severity of the disease it causes?

The more diverse the genomic repertoire, the milder the disease

37
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What is a potential complication of gastroenteritis cause by Salmonella?

Reiter’s syndrome

38
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What is the incubation period of enteric fever caused by Salmonella?

10 to 14 days

39
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Which component of Salmonella's lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is responsible for anchoring LPS to the outer membrane?

Lipid A

40
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Flagella in Salmonella are responsible for:

Facilitating motility and chemotaxis

41
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What is the unique feature possessed by S. Typhi, the causative agent of typhoid fever?

Vi antigen

42
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What is the main function of the SPI-1 TTSS during the early stages of infection?

Facilitating reorganization of the host cell structure

43
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What is the purpose of the acid tolerance response in Salmonella?

Overcome acidic pH levels in the stomach