Medical Imaging Midterm 2 Notes

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360 Terms

1
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What is required to operate a fluoroscopic unit in CA?

permit and passing test score

2
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What was the first fluoro unit, as well as other WW1 fluoro components made of?

ZnCdS

3
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What color light did the first fluoro unit emit?

dim green

4
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What was a critical flaw in the early days of fluoro?

lackluster protective units

5
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Who is given credit for the first handheld fluoro unit?

Marie Curie

6
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What was the resolution like for the first handheld fluoro unit?

low resolution

7
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What was the intended purpose for the first handheld fluoro unit?

aimed to quickly locate shrapnel/foreign objects in bodies

8
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What was the #1 concern that led to the creation of CA’s fluoro permit?

genetic dose

9
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What does a fluoro permit allow?

operation of equipment, movement of patient under fluoro, setting technique, plugging in equipment

10
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What term defines the peeling of tissue due to damage?

desquamation

11
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What is the maximum time for fluoro in a medical procedure?

no limit

12
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What is the #1 exposure risk for workers and patients?

fluoroscopy

13
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What act compelled manufacturers to report radiation burn cases?

Safe Medical Devices Act (SMDA)

14
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What resulted from the SMDA?

Lengthy Interventional Procedures

15
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What is another name for Lengthy Interventional Procedures?

coronary angiography

16
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Is the conventional fluoro system digital or non-digital?

non-digital

17
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What is the most common TV camera tube?

Vidicon

18
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What is the function of a camera tube in a fluoro system?

converts light from II to electronic pulses

19
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What is created when x-rays enter a patient?

remnant pattern of information

20
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What does the II output?

bright light

21
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If there is too little or too much light, where does the ABC send a signal?

to the AEC

22
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What does ABC stand for?

automatic brightness control

23
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What does AEC stand for?

automatic exposure control

24
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When the AEC receives a signal from the ABC, what is adjusted?

technique (kVp and mAs)

25
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What is the ultimate goal the AEC is trying to reach?

automatic brightness stabilization (ABS)

26
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What happens to occupational and patient dose when light within the II increases?

dose increases

27
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What is the total resolution of a standard fluoro system?

2 lp

28
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What is the resolution of an II’s input phosphor?

4 lp

29
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What is the resolution of an II’s output phosphor?

2 lp

30
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If the input phosphor receives more dose, what will the output phosphor emit?

more light

31
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What draws the electrostatic image to the output phosphor?

electrostatic focusing lens

32
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What type of potential difference is the electrostatic image drawn through in an II?

positivity-biased

33
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What is an input phosphor made of?

cesium iodide

34
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What is the diameter of an input phosphor?

9 inches

35
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What is the photocathode composed of?

antimony trisulfide

36
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What does the photocathode emit?

electrons

37
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What is the potential difference across a standard image intensifier?

25 kV

38
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What is the maximum entrance dose for a manual exposure control of the II?

5 R/min

39
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What is the federal regulation for the maximum entrance dose for the AEC?

10 R/min

40
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What is the maximum entrance dose for a high level exposure control?

20 R/min

41
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What is CA’s maximum average patient entrance dose?

5 R/min

42
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What is the function of evacuated glass in an II?

creates vacuum for tube

43
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What does the input phosphor of an II receive?

remnant pattern/radiation from patient

44
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What does the input phosphor of an II create?

light

45
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What does the photocathode of an II receive?

light from input screen

46
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What does the photocathode of an II produce?

electrons

47
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What are photocathodes of the II made of?

antimony trisulfide

48
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What is sprayed on top of photocathodes to prevent them from chemically interacting with the input screen?

plastic film

49
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What is the function of electrostatic lens in the II?

keep pattern in place as electrons move through II, preventing distortion

50
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What is the relationship between electrostatic lens and spatial resolution?

maintain spatial resolution

51
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What is the function of the accelerating anode in the II?

draws electrostatic image forward

52
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How fast do electrons accelerate through the II?

at half the speed of light

53
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What does the output phosphor of the II receive?

electrons

54
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What is the output phosphor of the II made of?

ZnCdS

55
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Why did output phosphors switch from CeI to ZnCdS?

longer lifespan, added durability

56
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What color light do output screen emit?

green

57
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What is the “ground” of an II made of?

aluminum

58
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What is the function of a “ground” of an II?

prevents light from reentering tube and affecting the positive bias, pulls off electrons that hit output screen

59
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What is are other terms used to refer to high level control (HLC)?

boost

60
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What are the limits to the mag mode in fluoro?

no limit

61
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What are the limits to spot films/camera spots in fluoro?

no limit

62
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What is the exposure limit for a radiology worker under the age of 18?

0.5 Rem per year

63
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What is the exposure limit for a radiology worker over the age of 18?

5 Rem per year

64
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What is the exposure limit for a public member?

0.1 Rem

65
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What is the exposure limit for a fetus?

0.5 Rem per 9 months or 0.05 Rem per month

66
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In CA, when is dose measured for pregnant workers?

organogenesis

67
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What is skin dose measured as?

first 4 cm into patient

68
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What term defines the difference in brightness between the output phosphor to the input phosphor?

brightness gain

69
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What term describes the difference in the diameters of the input and output phosphors?

minification

70
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How is brightness gain calculated?

multiply minification gain by flux gain

71
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What term describes how accelerated the electrons in the II are?

flux gain

72
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What is the standard range for flux gain?

50-100

73
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What is the typical range for brightness gain?

3000-4000

74
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What happens to dose when magnification increases?

dose increases

75
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What happens to the focal point in the II when voltage increases?

focal point moves back

76
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What occurs in the II when an image is magnified in fluoro?

less electrons hit output phosphor, leading to less light

77
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How does magnification affect resolution and contrast?

increases resolution and contrast

78
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What is the lead equivalency value for an input phosphor?

2 mm Pb

79
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What is another term for the input phosphor?

primary beam

80
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What is another term for the remnant image the input phosphor receives?

primary beam

81
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Why must the fluoro tube and II carriage be detented?

ensure primary barrier receives all of primary beam

82
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What is the “jail box” of the II?

grid

83
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When should grids be removed?

for peds and parts smaller than 10 cm

84
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How close should the II be to the patient?

as close as possible

85
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Where is the average patient entrance dose measured for under-table tubes?

1 cm above the table

86
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Where is the average patient entrance dose measured for over-table tubes?

30 cm off above the table

87
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For under-table tubes, what is the set entrance dose if the tube is 12’’ from the patient?

5 R

88
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For under-table tubes, what is the set entrance dose if the tube is 18’’ from the patient?

3.3 R

89
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What is the federal regulation for the distance between the patient and the tube?

15’’

90
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What is the federal regulation for the distance between the patient and the tube for a C-Arm?

12’’

91
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Why is high kVp used for a traditional fluoro technique?

maximizes absorption of given contrast by matching the average energy of the beam

92
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What is the contrast k-shell binding energy?

33-35 keV

93
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Why is low mAs used for a traditional fluoro technique?

helps decrease heat on target and extend fluoro time indefinitely

94
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What is the range of mA used in fluoro procedures?

0.5-3 mA

95
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How is the probability of scatter interaction demonstrated with the sideways pear?

high probability of scatter traveling in a certain direction if point of interaction to wall of pear is longer

96
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Where does most scatter travel?

forward from the patient

97
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As you move closer to the II, what happens to the amount of scatter?

decreases

98
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What is the required lead equivalency that the bucky slot of a x-ray and fluoro unit have?

0.5 mm Pb

99
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What is the recommended thickness for aprons?

0.5 mm Pb

100
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How much mm of Pb equivalence should a mobile wall have?

1 mm Pb eq