VIOLET - TOXI

E. Stabilization of the patient

1. The first priority step in the treatment of poisoned patient is:

A. Clinical evaluation

B. Prevention of further toxin absorption

C. Administration of antidote

D. Supportive care and clinical follow-up

E. Stabilization of the patient

C. Organophosphates

2. Characteristic odor of garlic detected on the poisoned patient's breath or clothing may point toward exposure or poisoning of which of the following?

A. Cyanide

B. Hydrogen sulfide

C. Organophosphates

D. Naphthalene

E. Methyl salicylate

C. Toxicokinetics

3. The term denotes the disposition of poisons in the body:

A. Toxicodynamics

B. Pharmacokinetics

C. Toxicokinetics

D. Toxidrome

E. Clinical toxicology

B. Oral administration of MgO

4. The following are the four primary methods to prevent continued absorption of an oral poison EXCEPT:

A. Induction of emesis with syrup of ipecac

B. Oral administration of MgO

C. Gastric lavage

D. Oral administration of activated charcoal

E. Whole bowel irrigation

B. Anion gap

5. The difference between the serum concentrations of the major cations (Na+/K+) and anions (HCO3-/Cl-); an increase of this value indicates the presence of extra anions and is most commonly caused by metabolic acidosis:

A. Osmolar gap

B. Anion gap

C. Cation gap

D. Osmosis gap

E. Metabolic gap

D. Increased fatty acid oxidation

6. Hepatic lipid accumulation can occur as the result of one or more of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Increased fatty acid supply to the liver

B. Increased fatty acid transporter expression

C. Increased de novo fatty acid and triglyceride synthesis

D. Increased fatty acid oxidation

E. Decreased synthesis and/or secretion of VLDL

A. Cyanide

7. Characteristic odor of bitter almond detected on the poisoned patient's breath or clothing may point toward exposure or poisoning of which of the following?

A. Cyanide

B. Hydrogen sulfide

C. Organophosphates

D. Naphthalene

E. Methyl salicylate

A. Toxicodynamics

8. Denotes the injurious effects of toxins and is very important in the diagnosis and management of poisoning:

A. Toxicodynamics

B. Pharmacokinetics

C. Toxicokinetics

D. Toxidrome

E. Clinical toxicology

A. Veratum californicum

9. Which of the following plants may cause nausea, emesis, hypertension, and bradycardia on ingestion?

A. Veratum californicum

B. Convallaria majalis

C. Digitalis purpurea

D. Ricinus communis

E. Podophyllum peltatum

B. The charcoal has been specifically processed to be more efficient at adsorbing toxins

10. For many years, orally administered activated charcoal has been routinely incorporated into the initial treatment of a patient poisoned by the oral route. The term "activated" means:

A. Inorganic impurities are removed on the charcoal to prevent intoxication

B. The charcoal has been specifically processed to be more efficient at adsorbing toxins

C. The charcoal is sterilized to increase effectiveness

D. The charcoal comes from a synthetic source

E. The charcoal is converted to its active form when exposed into the acidic pH of the stomach

B. Hyperthermia

11. The most frequent result of overdose of drugs with antimuscarinic actions, the salicylates, or sympathomimetics.

A. Hypotension

B. Hyperthermia

C. Mydriasis

D. Respiratory depression

E. Coma

B. Claviceps purpurea

12. Ingestion of this fungus causes vasoconstriction. In extreme cases, the vasoconstriction was severe enough that gangrene would develop in the extremities. Abortion in pregnant women is also common after ingestion of grains contaminated with this fungus.

A. Veratrum album

B. Claviceps purpurea

C. Histoplasma capsulatum

D. Candida albicans

E. Amanita phalloides

C. Chelation

13. All of the following are primary methods to enhance the elimination of specific poisons or drugs, EXCEPT:

A. Alkalinization of the urine

B. Hemodialysis

C. Chelation

D. Hemofiltration

E. Plasma exchange or exchange transfusion

B. Respiration

14. The most commonly endangered or impaired vital function in a poisoned patient is:

A. Heart rate

B. Respiration

C. Temperature

D. Blood circulation

E. Blood pressure

B. Analgesics

15. Which of the following substances is the most frequently involved in human poisoning exposures?

A. Personal care products

B. Analgesics

C. Cleaning substance

D. Sedatives, hypnotics, anti-psychotics

E. Cough and cold medications

D. Osmolar gap

16. The difference between the measured serum osmolality and the osmolality that is calculated from the serum concentrations of sodium, glucose, and BUN; an increase of this value is associated with poisoning due to ethanol and other alcohols.

A. Glucose gap

B. Serum gap

C. BUN gap

D. Osmolar gap

E. Anion gap

D. Pharmacological Toxicity

17. The CNS depression produced by barbiturates is largely predictable in a dose-dependent fashion and the progression of clinical effects goes from anxiolysis to sedation to somnolence to coma. The therapeutic drug toxicity is best classified as:

A. Pathological Toxicity

B. Genotoxic Effects

C. Allergic Reactions

D. Pharmacological Toxicity

E. Idiosyncratic Reactions

D. Thiamine

18. Administered to prevent Wernicke's syndrome in patients with suspected alcoholism or malnourishment.

A. Methanol

B. Fomepizole

C. Activated charcoal

D. Thiamine

E. Pyridoxine

B. Genotoxic Effects

19. Ionizing radiation and many environmental chemicals are known to injure DNA, and may lead to mutagenic or carcinogenic toxicities. This therapeutic drug toxicity is best classified as:

A. Pathological Toxicity

B. Genotoxic Effects

C. Allergic Reactions

D. Pharmacological Toxicity

E. Idiosyncratic Reactions

C. Naloxone

20. In patients with signs of respiratory or CNS depression, intravenous administration of this drug offsets possible toxic effects of opioid analgesic overdose.

A. Thiamine

B. Flumazenil

C. Naloxone

D. Phenobarbital

E. Morphine

E. None of these

21. Initial treatment approach for acute poisoning includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

I. Airway: Maintain patency

II. Breathing: Maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation

III. Circulation: Maintain perfusion of vital organs

IV. Disability: Assess central nervous system dysfunction

IV. Exposure: Assess toxidrome

A. I only

B. I and II

C. II and III

D. III and IV

E. None of these

B. Sympathomimetics

22. Agitation and increase in heart rate, blood pressure, temperature, and pupil size are best associated with what drug poisoning?

A. Anticholinergics

B. Sympathomimetics

C. Opioid

D. Salicylate

E. Sedative-hypnotics

C. Opioid

23. Somnolence/coma and decrease in heart rate, respiratory rate, and pupil size are best associated with what drug poisoning?

A. Anticholinergics

B. Sympathomimetics

C. Opioid

D. Salicylate

E. Sedative-hypnotics

D. Linamarin

24. Drugs that cause hyperkalemia include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. β-adrenoceptor agonists

B. Digitialis

C. Fluoride

D. Lithium

A. Anticholinergics

26. Delirium, ileus, flushing, and increase in heart rate, blood pressure, temperature, and pupil size are best associated with what drug poisoning?

A. Anticholinergics

B. Sympathomimetics

C. Opioid

D. Salicylate

E. Sedative-hypnotics

A. Cicuta maculate

27. Fleshy tubers of this plant material contains a neurotoxin that upon consumption can result in fatal poisoning, characterized by tonic-clonic convulsions, owing to the neurotoxin binding to GABA-gated chloride channels.

A. Cicuta maculate

B. Manihot esculenta

C. Amanita muscarita

D. Nicotiana tobacum

E. Strychnos nux vomica

D. Lithium

28. Drugs associated with hypokalemia include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. Barium

B. Methylxanthines

C. Loop diuretics

D. Lithium

E. Toluene

A. 0.5-2 g/kg of body weight

29. The recommended dose for activated charcoal is:

A. 0.5-2 g/kg of body weight

B. 1-3 g/kg of body weight

C. 5-6 g/kg of body weight

D. 10-12 g/kg of body weight

E. 20-25 g/kg of body weight

D. IV and V

30. Poisons that can be removed by multiple treatments with activated charcoal include all of the following, EXCEPT:

I. Amitriptyline

II. Barbiturates

III. Digitalis glycosides

IV. Iron

V. Lithium

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. III and IV

D. IV and V

E. I and V

E. Whole Bowel Irrigation

31. Decontamination method of poisoned patient that involves the enteral administration of large amounts of a high molecular weight, iso-osmotic polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution with the goal of passing poison by the rectum before it can be absorbed.

A. Gastric Lavage

B. Ion Trapping

C. Extracorporeal Drug Removal

D. Administration of Cathartic

E. Whole Bowel Irrigation

B. Salicylates

32. Confusion, lethargy, coma, seizures, hyperventilation, hyperthermia, dehydration, hypokalemia, anion gap metabolic acidosis are clinical features of toxicity with what agent?

A. Opioids

B. Salicylates

C. Tricyclic antidepressants

D. Anti-muscarinic drugs

E. Sedative-hypnotics

B. Glucagon hydrochloride

33. Antidote used for beta-adrenergic antagonists poisoning:

A. Fomepizole

B. Glucagon hydrochloride

C. Leucovorin calcium

D. Ocreotide acetate

E. Pralidoxime chloride

D. Lysergic acid (LSD)

34. Hallucinations, dilated pupils, and hypertension are toxic features of which agent?

A. Acetaminophen

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Lead

D. Lysergic acid (LSD)

E. Mercury

E. Lead

35. Abdominal pain, hypertension, seizures, muscle weakness, metallic taste, anorexia, encephalopathy, delayed motor neuropathy, and changes in renal and reproductive function are toxic features of which agent?

A. Mercury

B. Methanol

C. Cyanide

D. Phencyclidine (PCP)

E. Lead

E. Pralidoxime chloride

36. Antidote used for organophosphorus pesticide poisoning.

A. Fomepizole

B. Glucagon hydrochloride

C. Leucovorin calcium

D. Ocreotide acetate

E. Pralidoxime chloride

B. Hemodialysis

37. An extracorporeal circulation procedure in which a patient's blood is pumped through a column containing a semipermeable membrane that allows the removal of many toxic compounds.

A. Ion trapping

B. Hemodialysis

C. Peritoneal dialysis

D. Whole bowel irrigation

E. Gastric lavage

E. Esmolol

38. Used as an antidote for caffeine, theophylline, and sympathomimetics overdose.

A. Flumazenil

B. Fomepizole

C. Naloxone

D. Ethanol

E. Esmolol

C. Ocreotide acetate

39. Antidote used for sulfonylurea-induced hypoglycemia.

A. Sodium thiosulfate

B. Penicillamine

C. Ocreotide acetate

D. Vitamin K

E. Leucovorin calcium

B. Dantrolene

40. Useful in treating hyperthermia and rhabdomyolysis caused by drug-induced muscular hyperactivity that is not controlled by usual cooling measures or neuromuscular paralysis. Primarily indicated for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.

A. Bromocriptine

B. Dantrolene

C. Esmolol

D. Fomepizole

E. Glucagon

E. Flumazenil

41. Used for rapid reversal of benzodiazepine overdose-induced coma and respiratory depression.

A. Epinephrine

B. Isoproterenol

C. Leucovorin calcium

D. Potassium iodide

E. Flumazenil

A. Atropa belladonna

42. Ingestion of this plant material may result into tachycardia, dry mouth, dilated pupils, and decreased gastrointestinal motility of an individual.

A. Atropa belladonna

B. Thermopsis montana

C. Solanum malacoxylon

D. Leucaena leucocephala

E. Cassia obtusifolia

E. Leucovorin calcium

43. Antidote used for methotrexate poisoning.

A. Sodium thiosulfate

B. Penicillamine

C. Ocreotide acetate

D. Vitamin K

E. Leucovorin calcium

A. Glucagon

44. Indicated for the treatment of hypotension, bradycardia, or conduction impairment caused by beta-adrenergic blocker intoxication.

A. Glucagon

B. Activated charcoal

C. Labetalol

D. Magnesium

E. Fomepizole

B. Tricholoroethylene

45. A widely-used solvent for metal degreasing associated with a number of non-cancer toxicities including autoimmune disorders, immune system dysfunction, and is also potentially a male reproductive toxicant.

A. Tetrachloroethylene

B. Tricholoroethylene

C. Methylene chloride

D. Carbon tetrachloride

E. Chloroform

A. Pyridoxine

46. Indicated for acute management of seizures caused by intoxication with isoniazid, hydrazine, Gyromitra mushrooms, or possibly cycloserine.

A. Pyridoxine

B. Thiamine

C. Vasopressin

D. Nitroprusside

E. Metoclopramide

D. α-Latrotoxin

47. The most studied protein from Latrodectus mactans (female black widow spider) that is toxic only to vertebrates and not to insects or crustaceans.

A. Hyaluronidase

B. Protoxin I

C. Apyrase

D. α-Latrotoxin

E. Formic acid

C. 100% oxygen

48. Indicated for patients with carbon monoxide poisoning, to increase the conversion of carboxyhemoglobin and carboxymyoglobin to hemoglobin and myoglobin, respectively.

A. Helium

B. Ferrous sulphate

C. 100% oxygen

D. Nitrogen

E. Carbon dioxide

D. Protamine

49. Used for the reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin when an excessively large dose has been administered inadvertently.

A. Warfarin

B. Hirudin

C. Vitamin K

D. Protamine

E. Ocreotide

E. Chloroform

50. Used primarily in the production of the refrigerant which is also a hepatotoxic and nephrotoxic agent. It can invoke CNS symptoms at sub-anesthetic concentrations similar to those of alcohol intoxication and can sensitize the myocardium to catecholamine, possibly resulting to cardiac arrythmias.

A. Tetrachloroethylene

B. Trichlorethylene

C. Methylene chloride

D. Carbon tetrachloride

E. Chloroform

B. Morphine

51. Indicated for severe pain associated with black widow spider envenomation, rattlesnake envenomation, or other bites or stings.

A. Acetaminophen

B. Morphine

C. Propofol

D. Dantrolene

E. Cyproheptadine

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52. Indicated for internal contamination with plutonium, americium, and curium. It has also been used for treatment of internal contamination with califormium and berkelium.

A. EDTA

B. DTPA

C. BAL

D. KI

E. Unithiol

B. Benzene

53. The hematopoietic toxicity of chronic exposure to this agent may manifest initially as anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, or a combination of these.

A. Xylenes

B. Benzene

C. Toluene

D. Ethylbenzene

E. Ethanol

E. Ondansetron

54. This drug is used to treat intractable nausea and vomiting, particularly when the ability to administer activated charcoal or antidotal therapy (e.g. N-acetylcysteine) is compromised.

A. Penicillamine

B. Protamine

C. Prussian blue

D. Ipecac

E. Ondansetron

A. Ceruloplasmin

55. A coper-containing glycoprotein oxidase in plasma that converts ferrous iron into ferric ion, which then binds to transferrin. This protein also stimulates iron uptake by a transferrin independent mechanism.

A. Ceruloplasmin

B. Transferrin

C. Ferritin

D. Metallothioneins

E. Albumin

A. Silymarin

56. Component of food supplements that is possibly effective as adjuvant therapy in cases of acute hepatic injury caused by Amanita phalloides mushroom ingestion, acetaminophen toxicity, and potentially other chemical and drug-induced liver diseases.

A. Silymarin

B. Botulinum

C. Ocreotide

D. Orlistat

E. L-carnitine

C. Chelators

57. The most typical strategy used to treat metal poisoning is thru the administration of:

A. Antacids

B. Neutralizers

C. Chelators

D. Pharmacologic antagonist

E. Emetic

E. Mees' lines

58. Which of the following is a characteristic of arsenic poisoning?

A. Arenate's lines

B. Acromegaly

C. Chronic nephropathy

D. Foot drop and wrist drop

E. Mees' lines

C. Apomorphine

59. An alkaloid salt derived from morphine that is a dopaminergic agonist with minimal analgesic properties but marked emetic efficacy. Previously used for induction of emesis in the acute management of oral poisoning, but it has been abandoned because of its potential for respiratory depression.

A. Ondansetron

B. Metoclopramide

C. Apomorphine

D. Cyproheptadine

E. Ipecac

B. Skin

60. The major target organ in chronic inorganic arsenic exposure.

A. Liver

B. Skin

C. Bone

D. Lungs

E. Brain

B. Phytonadione

61. Indicated for excessive anticoagulation caused by coumarin and indanedione derivatives, as evidenced by elevated prothrombin time.

A. Protamine

B. Phytonadione

C. Heparin

D. Hirudin

E. Lepirudin

A. Succimer

62. Oral chelator used in removing arsenic from a poisoned patient.

A. Succimer

B. Methylene blue

C. Sodium thiosulfate

D. Magnesium oxide

E. Activated charcoal

D. Methylene blue

63. Agent used to treat methemoglobinemia, in which the patient has symptoms or signs of hypoxemia (e.g. dyspnea, confusion, or chest pain) or has a methemoglobin level greater than 30%.

A. Succimer

B. Dantrolene

C. Sodium thiosulfate

D. Methylene blue

E. Nitroprusside

B. Peripheral neuropathy

64. Classic manifestation of lead toxicity in adults.

A. Encephalopathy

B. Peripheral neuropathy

C. Ataxia

D. Foot drop and wrist drop

E. Mental retardation

B. Infant botulism

65. Caused by ingestion of botulism spores (not preformed toxin) followed by in vivo production of toxin (typically type A or B) in the immature infant gut. Risk factors include age less than 1 year, breastfeeding, and ingestion of honey (which commonly contains botulism spores).

A. Food-borne botulism

B. Infant botulism

C. Wound botulism

D. Adult intestinal colonization (adult-infant) botulism

E. Water botulism

E. II, III, and IV

66. Which of the following is true regarding mercury poisoning?

I. Mercury vapor is less hazardous than liquid form

II. Consumption of fish is the major route of exposure to methylmercury

III. The kidney is the major target organ for inorganic mercury

IV. The major human health effect from exposure to methylmercury is neurotoxicity

A. I only

B. I and II

C. II and III

D. I, II, and III

E. II, III, and IV

A. High affinity binding to sulfhydryl groups of proteins in the cells

67. Which of the following is the mechanism of toxicity of mercury?

A. High affinity binding to sulfhydryl groups of proteins in the cells

B. Inhibition of enzymes

C. Destruction of hepatocyte

D. Uncoupling of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation

E. Prevention of acetylcholine release

A. Food-borne botulism

68. Occurs after ingestion of preformed toxin in contaminated food. Initial symptoms are nonspecific and may include nausea, vomiting, sore throat, and abdominal discomfort.

A. Food-borne botulism

B. Infant botulism

C. Wound botulism

D. Adult intestinal colonization (adult-infant) botulism

E. Water botulism

A. Zinc

69. Excess dietary intake of this essential metal is associated with damage to exocrine pancreas. Deficiency, on the other hand, may alter an antioxidant enzyme resulting in excess free radicals that are damaging to cell membranes.

A. Zinc

B. Lead

C. Platinum

D. Chromium

E. Aluminum

B. Ricin

70. Derived from castor bean and may be delivered as a powder or dissolved in water and may be inhaled, ingested, or injected. Clinical effects of toxin include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, often bloody.

A. Gossypol

B. Ricin

C. Quinine

D. Castorin

E. Mycotoxin

C. Vitamin C

71. Chronic excessive use and large IV doses of this vitamin can produce increased levels of the metabolite oxalic acid. Urinary acidification promotes calcium oxalate crystal formation, which can result in nephropathy or acute renal failure.

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

E. Vitamin E

D. Wilson's disease

72. An autosomal recessive genetic disorder of copper metabolism characterized by the excessive accumulation of copper in liver, brain, kidneys, and cornea.

A. Plumbism

B. Menke's disease

C. Asthenic-vegetative syndrome

D. Wilson's disease

E. Cu

D. Vitamin D

73. Chronic ingestion of excessive amounts of this vitamin enhances calcium absorption and produces hypercalcemia.

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

E. Vitamin E

A. Vitamin A

74. Toxicity of this vitamin is characterized by dry peeling skin, alopecia, and signs of increased intracranial pressure. Bulging fontanelles have been described in infants. Liver injury may cause jaundice and ascites.

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin B

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D

E. Vitamin E

D. Tetanus

75. The most common initial complaint of patients having this disease is pain and stiffness of the jaw, progressing to trismus, risus sardonicus, and opisthotonus over several days.

A. Metal flume fever

B. Methemoglobinemia

C. Hymenoptera

D. Tetanus

E. Botulism

D. Pyridoxine

76. Chronic overdose of this vitamin may alter neuronal conduction, resulting in paresthesias and muscular incoordination.

A. Thiamine

B. Riboflavin

C. Niacin

D. Pyridoxine

E. Folic acid

D. Bretylium

77. The major toxic side effect of this antiarrhythmic drug is hypotension caused by inhibition of catecholamine release. Orthostatic hypotension may persist for several hours.

A. Tocainide

B. Mexiletine

C. Flecainide

D. Bretylium

E. Amiodarone

A. ACE inhibitors

78. Bradykinin-mediated effects in patients taking therapeutic doses of these antihypertensive drugs include dry cough (generally mild but often persistent and annoying) and acute angioedema, usually involving the tongue, lips, and face, which may lead to life-threatening airway obstruction.

A. ACE inhibitors

B. Angiotensin II receptor blockers

C. Beta blockers

D. Calcium channel blockers

E. Vasodilators

E. Aminoglycosides

79. Toxicity of these antibacterial agents include ototoxicity to vestibular and cochlear cells, nephrotoxicity causing proximal tubular damage and acute tubular necrosis and competitive neuromuscular blockade if given rapidly intravenously with other neuromuscular blocking drugs.

A. Cephalosporins

B. Penicillins

C. Macrolides

D. Glycopeptide antibiotics

E. Aminoglycosides

E. III, IV and V

80. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal include which of the following?

I. Decrease in blood pressure

II. Decrease in heart rate

III. Flushing and temperature elevation

IV. Anxiety and confusion

V. Tremor

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. III and IV

D. I, II, and III

E. III, IV and V

D. I, II, and III

81. Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include which of the following?

I. Sweating

II. Dilated pupils

III. Diarrhea

IV. Decrease in blood pressure

V. Decrease in heart rate

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. III and IV

D. I, II, and III

E. III, IV, and V

D. Eryhtromycin

82. This antibiotic may cause abdominal pain, idiosyncratic hepatotoxicity with estolate salt and administration of more than 4 g/day may cause tinnitus and ototoxicity.

A. Azithromycin

B. Nalidixic acid

C. Metronidazole

D. Eryhtromycin

E. Ampicillin

D. Toxicogenomics

83. Permits mechanistic toxicologists to identify and protect genetically susceptible individuals from harmful environmental exposures, and to customize drug therapies based on their individual genetic makeup.

A. Mechanistic toxicology

B. Descriptive toxicology

C. Regulatory toxicology

D. Toxicogenomics

E. Toxidrome

C. Descriptive toxicologist

84. Concerned directly with toxicity testing, which provides information for safety evaluation and regulatory requirements.

A. Clinical toxicologist

B. Mechanistic toxicologist

C. Descriptive toxicologist

D. Regulatory toxicologist

E. Forensic toxicologist

A. Forensic toxicology

85. A hybrid of analytic chemistry and fundamental toxicologic principles that focuses primarily on the medicolegal aspects of the harmful effects of chemicals on humans and animals.

A. Forensic toxicology

B. Clinical toxicology

C. Environmental toxicology

D. Developmental toxicology

E. Reproductive toxicology

E. 10,000 mg/kg

86. LD50 of ethyl alcohol:

A. 150 mg/kg

B. 900 mg/kg

C. 1,500 mg/kg

D. 4,000 mg/kg

E. 10,000 mg/kg

A. 150 mg/kg

87. LD50 of phenobarbital sodium:

A. 150 mg/kg

B. 900 mg/kg

C. 1,500 mg/kg

D. 4,000 mg/kg

E. 10,000 mg/kg

B. Toxicants

88. Toxic substances that are produced by or are by-products of human activities.

A. Toxins

B. Toxicants

C. Toxic

D. Poisons

E. Antidotes

B. Hematotoxicology

89. The study of adverse effects of exogenous chemicals on blood and blood-forming tissues.

A. Mutagenicity

B. Hematotoxicology

C. Genotoxicology

D. Carcinogenicity

E. Developmental toxicology

B. Aplastic anemia

90. This life-threatening disorder is characterized by peripheral blood pancytopenia, reticulocytopenia, and bone marrow hypoplasia.

A. Megaloblastic anemia

B. Aplastic anemia

C. Pure red cell aplasia

D. Sideroblastic anemia

E. Iron deficiency anemia

A. Megaloblastic anemia

91. Deficiency of folate and/or Vitamin B12 results in this condition.

A. Megaloblastic anemia

B. Aplastic anemia

C. Pure red cell aplasia

D. Sideroblastic anemia

E. Iron deficiency anemia

B. Toxicants

92. Generally refers to toxic substances that are produced by biological systems such as plants, animals, fungi, or bacteria.

A. Toxins

B. Toxicants

C. Venom

D. Poisons

E. Antidotes

B. I, II and III

93. Environmental and therapeutic agents associated with methemoglobinemia include which of the following?

I. Benzocaine

II. Dapsone

III. Nitrates

IV. Chloramphenicol

V. Allopurinol

A. I and II

B. I, II and III

C. II, III, and IV

D. III, IV, and V

E. IV and V

E. IV and V

94. Drugs associated with the development of aplastic anemia include which of the following?

I. Benzocaine

II. Dapsone

III. Nitrates

IV. Chloramphenicol

V. Allopurinol

A. I and II

B. I, II and III

C. II, III, and IV

D. III, IV, and V

E. IV and V

B. Chemical allergy

95. An immunologically mediated adverse reaction to a chemical resulting from previous sensitization to that chemical or to a structurally similar one.

A. Deleterious reaction

B. Chemical allergy

C. Chemical idiosyncrasy

D. Hypoxia

E. Anaphylactic shock

E. IV and V

96. Xenobiotics associated with oxidative injury include which of the following?

I. Acetaminophen

II. Ascorbic acid

III. Mefenamic acid

IV. Phenol

V. Nitrobenzene

A. I and II

B. I, II, and III

C. II, III, and IV

D. III, IV, and V

E. IV and V

B. Leukemia

97. Proliferative disorders of hematopoietic tissue that are monoclonal and originate from individual bone marrow cells.

A. Anemia

B. Leukemia

C. Agranulocytosis

D. Neutropenia

E. Methemoglobinemia

B. Tolerance

98. A state of decreased responsiveness to a toxic effect of a chemical resulting from prior exposure to that chemical or a structurally related chemical.

A. Potentiation

B. Tolerance

C. Antagonism

D. Immediate toxicity

E. Delayed toxicity

C. III, IV, and V

99. Metals capable of immunosuppression include which of the following?

I. Magnesium

II. Calcium

III. Arsenic

IV. Cobalt

V. Gold

A. I, II, and III

B. II, III, and IV

C. III, IV, and V

D. I and V

E. IV and V

D. Chronic exposure

100. Defined as exposure to a chemical for more than 3 months.

A. Acute exposure

B. Subacute exposure

C. Subchronic exposure

D. Chronic exposure

E. Repeated exposure

A. Mycotoxin

101. Structurally diverse secondary metabolites of fungi which comprise of toxins such as aflatoxin, ochratoxin, and the trichothecenes.

A. Mycotoxin

B. Neurotoxin

C. Cytotoxin

D. Necrotoxin

E. Cyanotoxin