BIOL 2110 Final Summary Quizzes

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412 Terms

1
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What are infectious protein particles called?

Prions

2
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What are infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants called?

Viroids

3
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What are key characteristics of HIV?

Attacks the immune system, stage 2 is AIDS, no widely effective cure

4
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Which virus can cause paralysis and may require the use of an iron lung?

Polio virus

5
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Hepatitis D is classified as a _____?

Satellite virus

6
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HPV is known to cause which type of cancer?

Cervical cancer

7
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Which is an animal prion disease?

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (mad cow disease)

8
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What is PrEP and what is it used for?

Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis; used to prevent HIV infection

9
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Why are the Berlin, London, and Düsseldorf patients significant in HIV research?

They represent possible HIV cures through bone marrow transplantation

10
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Which stage of HIV infection shows flu-like symptoms shortly after exposure?

Acute HIV infection

11
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What virus is the predominant cause of the common cold?

Rhinovirus

12
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What percentage of cervical cancer is caused by HPV, with HPV16 & 18 responsible for most cases?

70%

13
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What painful rash is caused by the reactivation of varicella zoster virus in adults?

Shingles

14
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Which virus causes hydrophobia (fear of water) and insomnia?

Rabies lyssavirus

15
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Which vaccine protects against Ebola virus?

Ervebo

16
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What illnesses are common human coronaviruses responsible for?

Upper respiratory tract and intestinal illnesses

17
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Which body system does the rabies virus primarily affect?

Central nervous system

18
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Evidence of herpes simplex virus is increasingly found in the brains of patients with which disease?

Alzheimer's disease

19
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Chronic wasting disease can jump from deer/elk/moose to cattle. True or False?

False

20
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What are prions made of?

Protein

21
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Which virus has been eradicated from the world through vaccination?

Smallpox

22
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Are Ebola antibodies protective for upwards of 50 years after recovery?

False

23
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The influenza vaccine in the U.S. is a ______________ vaccine.

Quadrivalent

24
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How is Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS) primarily transmitted?

Airborne respiratory droplets

25
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Which virus is NOT one of the five main Herpesviridae viruses of human health concern?

Human Papillomavirus

26
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A patient with genital warts likely has which viral infection?

HPV

27
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A patient with nasal congestion, sneezing, and mild cough most likely has which virus?

Rhinovirus

28
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Host cells of viruses include which organisms?

Bacteria, protozoa, algae, plants, fungi, humans, and other animals (All of the above)

29
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Virus capsids are made from subunits called?

Capsomeres

30
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Helical and icosahedral describe the shape of what virus structure?

Capsid

31
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A naked virus contains only a(n) _____?

Nucleocapsid

32
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Which structure is not associated with every virus?

Envelope

33
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Viral host range is limited by what?

Type of host cell receptors on the cell membrane

34
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Viruses capable of starting tumors are called?

Oncoviruses

35
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Prophages do NOT cause _____?

Lysis of host cells

36
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T-even phages ____________.

Infect E. coli cells

37
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Which event occurs in bacteriophage multiplication but not in animal virus replication?

Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome

38
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Which type of phage enters an inactive prophage stage?

Temperate

39
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When a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called _____?

Lysogenic conversion

40
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Progressive hypothesis of virus origin states?

Mobile genetic elements gained the ability to exit one cell and enter another

41
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Regressive hypothesis of virus origin states?

Existing viruses evolved from complex organisms that lost genetic info

42
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Virus First hypothesis states?

Viruses existed as self-replicating units before cells

43
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True or False: Viruses shape the evolution of cells, tissues, bacteria, plants, and animals.

True

44
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True or False: A virus may contain DNA, RNA, or both at the same time.

False

45
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An envelope virus can bud from which of the following?

Cell membrane, nuclear envelope, ER (Not ribosomes)

46
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Order the phases of animal viral replication.

1. Adsorption → 2. Penetration → 3. Uncoating → 4. Synthesis → 5. Assembly → 6. Release

47
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Penetration by engulfing a virus in a vesicle is called?

Endocytosis

48
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Which virus type enters the host nucleus for replication and assembly?

DNA viruses

49
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A pathogen that cannot synthesize ATP, lacks ribosomes, contains RNA, and multiplies in host cells is classified as?

Virus

50
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Loss of infectivity when a virus dries is likely due to what structural feature?

Envelope acquired from host membrane

51
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A new viral strain emerges after mutations in genes encoding spike proteins. What is the likely consequence?

Loss or change of ability to attach to host cells

52
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A virus infects liver cells but not neurons. What concept explains this?

Tissue tropism

53
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Viral assembly occurring in the cytoplasm is most consistent with which virus type?

RNA virus

54
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A bacterial strain gains the ability to make a toxin after infection by a temperate phage. What process occurred?

Lysogenic conversion

55
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A bacteriophage injects DNA but does not immediately kill the host. Which cycle is active?

Lysogenic

56
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Why is a vaccine unlikely to help against a virus with more than 160 known serotypes?

Too many serotypes prevent broad immunity

57
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Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is ineffective if started 72 hours after flu symptoms. Why?

Neuraminidase inhibitors are only effective within 48 hours of symptom onset

58
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Why do herpesvirus infections recur, such as cold sores triggered by stress or sunlight?

They establish lifelong latent infections

59
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Why does shingles rash appear in a band along one nerve pathway?

VZV reactivation occurs in sensory nerves serving specific dermatomes

60
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A patient with HIV receives a stem cell transplant from a CCR5Δ32 donor and shows no detectable HIV. Why is this significant?

The CCR5Δ32 mutation eliminates the primary HIV entry receptor, preventing infection

61
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What type of bond forms when one atom donates electrons and another accepts them?

Ionic bond

62
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What determines whether a solution is acidic or basic?

The concentration of H⁺ ions in the solution

63
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Which microscopy has stronger resolution and magnification?

Electron microscopy

64
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When approximately did cellular life appear on Earth?

~3.8 billion years ago

65
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What type of chemical bond is formed when atoms share electrons unequally?

Polar covalent

66
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What is the charge of an electron?

Negative

67
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What is the charge of a proton?

Positive

68
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What is the charge of a neutron?

Neutral

69
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What type of culture arises due to poor aseptic technique?

Contaminated

70
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If you increase the pH of a solution from 5 to 6, by what factor do hydrogen ions change?

10

71
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Who described logical steps to establish if an organism is pathogenic?

Koch

72
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What is the assignment of scientific names to taxonomic categories and individual organisms called?

Nomenclature

73
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Which is the larger taxonomic category, order or class?

Class

74
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Is it true or false that water is unable to moderate temperature?

False

75
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If the composition of a media is precisely chemically defined, what is it considered?

Synthetic

76
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What type of media allows multiple organisms to grow but displays visible differences in growth?

Differential

77
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In which microscope does visible light pass through a specimen and glass lenses?

Light microscope

78
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What type of dye is used for creating a negative simple stain?

Acidic dye

79
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What is the ancestor from which all cellular life arose called?

LUCA (Last Universal Common Ancestor)

80
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What is the first evidence for microbial life?

Stromatolites

81
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Are dogs classified as eukaryotes?

True

82
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Which element is the most electronegative?

Fluorine (F)

83
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What is methane (CH₄) classified as?

Molecule and compound

84
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What are microbes that inhabit extreme environments called?

Extremophiles

85
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Which organisms caused the 'Great Oxygenation Event'?

Cyanobacteria

86
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What is the concept that life arises from non-living matter naturally?

Abiogenesis

87
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In which domains can microorganisms be found?

Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya

88
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Who described 'wee animalcules'?

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek

89
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Who refuted the theory of spontaneous generation?

Louis Pasteur

90
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What is it called when bacteria grow on medical devices, forming a protective community resistant to treatment?

Biofilm

91
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Given only a mass number, what can you deduce in an atom?

Number of protons + neutrons

92
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What are the mass number and atomic number of a nitrogen atom with 7 protons and 8 neutrons?

Mass number = 15, Atomic number = 7

93
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How many unpaired electrons does an atom with 6 electrons in its outer shell have?

2

94
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How many more electrons does sulfur need to complete its valence shell?

2

95
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When is a covalent bond likely polar?

One atom is much more electronegative than the other

96
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What forms an ionic bond?

Transfer of an electron from one atom to another

97
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How many OH⁻ ions does a solution with pH 4 have compared to a solution with pH 6?

100x fewer

98
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How many more H⁺ ions does 1 L of a solution with pH 4 have than 1 L of solution with pH 9?

100,000 times more

99
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What does bacterial growth refer to?

An increase in the number of cells

100
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What are bacteria that grow in humans and cause disease classified as?

Mesophiles