Quiz 4 - Anesthesia

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274 Terms

1
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What are some of the common reasons for complications?

human error

equipment related issues

general anesthesia

2
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_________ anesthesia is safer.

multi-drug

3
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Drugs all have unwanted side effects, and most are ?

dose dependent

4
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What makes up human error?

inadequate training

lack of familiarity with the anesthetic equipment/agents

failure to appropriately prepare patient for anesthesia

drug calculation and administration errors

errors caused by fatigue, rushing, or inattention

5
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The task of running anesthesia should be reserved for ___________ only.

trained personnel

6
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What are components of drug calculation and administration errors?

math errors

using the wrong medication

using the wrong concentration

administration by wrong route

confusion between syringes drawn

7
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Sodasorb should be replaced after ?

5 hours

8
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What happens if the vaporizer isn't refilled?

the patient won't stay asleep

9
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What are the components of general anesthesia complications?

inappropriate anesthetic depth

hypotension

hypothermia

bradycardia

hypoventilation

regurgitation

10
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How do you check depth?

check palpebral, jaw tone, eye position

11
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What does an absent palpebral and jaw tone and ventral eye position indicate?

adequate depth

12
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What does an absent palpebral and jaw tone and central eye position indicate?

too deep

13
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What are the risks of being too deep?

bradycardia

hypotension

hypercapnia

hypoventilation

14
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What does a slight to moderate jaw tone, slight palpebral, and central eye position indicate?

too light

15
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What are the risks of being too light?

patient responding to noxious stimuli

patient waking up intra-op

16
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What is a normal anesthetized blood pressure?

MAP: 60-100 (80 is ideal)

17
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What does MAP mean?

mean arterial pressure

18
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<60 MAP = ?

hypotension

19
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What can lead to decreased tissue perfusion and cardiac output?

hypotension

20
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What is a way to correct hypotension if the depth is ok?

decrease inhalant

21
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What is a way to correct hypotension if you decrease the inhalant and hypotension is still low?

give fluids

22
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What is a way to correct hypotension if the heart rate is low too?

increase heart rate

23
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What should be done to correct hypotension if nothing else is working?

vasopressors

24
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What is considered hypothermia?

<95F

25
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What is the best way to treat hypothermia?

prevent it

26
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At what temperature do drugs stop working?

93 F

27
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What are examples of heat support?

bair huggers

hotdog blankets

water blankets

warm towels

fluid bags

28
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What is a heart rate that is lower than expected for a given species and the situation its in?

sinus bradycardia

29
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Large breed dogs have ______ heart rates and small breed dogs have _________ heart rates.

lower, higher

30
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What dogs have abnormally low heart rates for their size?

dachshunds

31
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What is a way to correct bradycardia if the depth is ok?

decrease inhalant

32
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How can bradycardia and hypotension be corrected?

increase heart rate

33
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What is a slow or shallow ventilation?

hypoventilation

34
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Hypoventilations will result in a __________ ETCO2.

higher

35
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What is a measure of air moving in and out of the alveoli?

ventilation

36
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What is the process of delivering O2 from the alveoli to the tissues?

oxygenation

37
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What is a condition in which blood flow and oxygen is restricted or reduced in part of the body?

ischemia

38
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What requires active abdominal effort; a forceful expulsion of stomach contents followed by retching?

vomiting

39
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What is the flow of stomach contents into the esophagus and mouth unaccompanied by retching?

regurgitation

40
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What breeds are more disposed to regurgitation?

brachycephalic

41
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How can you treat regurgitation?

preventative anti-acids

suctioning out esophagus and mouth after

42
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Maropitant does not prevent _____________, only emesis.

regurgitation

43
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What is the minimum bloodwork for anesthetic purposes called the big 4?

PCV, TS, Bun, glucose

44
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What is important to note about c-sections?

almost all drugs with cross the placenta

45
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What types of drugs do not cross the placenta?

neuromuscular blocking agents and local anesthetics

46
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What should be done due to a decreased lung capacity due to the diaphragm being pushed cranially from a distended uterus?

pre-oxygentation

47
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There is an ____________ demand in oxygen in a patient that is about to give birth.

increased

48
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Clipping and prepping should be done _________ induction.

before

49
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With C-sections, how should awake or anesthetized patients be clipped and why?

in left lateral recumbency rather than dorsal

in dorsal, the heavy uterus could compress the vena cava

50
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How is analgesia given with a C section?

epidural with local anesthetic (doesn't cross the placenta)

51
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What is given for intra-operative care after delivery of babies?

full-mu opioid

52
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A new mother can have a _______________ because their plasma volume is increased without an increase in the number of RBCs, and this gets worse with more fetuses.

physiological anemia

53
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Ideally, there should be at least __________ per baby.

one person

54
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How should neonates' airways be cleaned?

bulb syringes

55
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What are examples of common respiratory distress issues?

pneumonia

anything pushing on the diaphragm like C-sections

hemothorax

pneumothorax

diaphragmatic hernias

56
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What can be done if respiratory distress becomes too compromised?

thoracentesis

57
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What is needed if the respiratory distress is caused by something in the upper respiratory tract like a mass around the larynx?

emergency tracheostomy

58
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What should not be done with diaphragmatic hernias?

do not tilt head down

59
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What is the most common post-op complication with diaphragmatic hernias?

pneumothorax

60
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What shows the oxygen saturation in the hemoglobin and the tissues?

SpO2

61
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What is considered a low SpO2?

below 96-95

62
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What monitors ETCO2 and gives us a waveform for each breath, providing information about ventilation?

capnograph

63
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What is considered a too high ETCO2 volume?

>60

64
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What monitors how much CO2 is currently in the blood?

blood gas

65
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___________ cases of diaphragmatic hernias tend to do better than traumatic ones.

chronic

66
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An ___________ should be established if possible to monitor invasive BP and arterial blood gases.

arterial line

67
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What is done if possible in the pre-op period with a GDV?

decompress the stomach with an orogastric tube or percutaneous trocharization with a large bore catheter

68
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What arrhythmias are seen with GDV?

PVCs and occasionally v-tach

69
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With GDV, you should place _____ catheters for CRIs and possibly blood.

two

70
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What CRIs are typically run with a GDV?

fentanyl and lidocaine

71
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What makes up the intra-operative care for GDVs?

fluid therapy

CRIs

vasopressors

orogastric tube

72
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Septic patients should be treated ?

immediately

73
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What are the two parts of sepsis?

infection

the body's response to the infection

74
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We like to use ______ inhalant with sepsis cases.

less

75
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What intra-op drugs are used for a sepsis case?

lidocaine CRI

full mu of choice

vasopressor

76
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What should be given post op for a sepsis case?

analgesia

lactate and electrolytes

77
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What is a severe complication because there is blood coming from somewhere in the abdomen, and it can lead to severe anemia and death if not corrected?

hemoabdomen

78
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Hemoabdomens are ?

emergencies

79
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What is the pre-op workup for a hemoabdomen?

PCV/TP

BP

MM

80
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PCV increase is most commonly due to ?

dehydration

81
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PCV decrease is most commonly due to ?

anemia

82
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TP increase is most commonly due to ?

dehydration

83
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TP decrease is most commonly due to ?

hemorrhage

84
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You should use a _______ dose of premeds with a hemoabdomen.

lower

85
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Code 0/Code red = ?

DNR, red collar

86
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A Code 1/Code green = ?

full CPR, green collar

87
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Compressions should be __________ and ventilations should be ______________.

100-120/min, 10/min

88
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Avoid ____________ of the horse prior to and during induction/sedation.

excitement

89
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What can decrease pressure on the major abdominal vessels with less cranial displacement of the diaphragm?

fasting

90
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Fasting is recommended for ?

8-12 hours

91
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What should be done before anesthesia to reduce the chance of aspiration pneumonia from foreign material in the mouth?

rinse the mouth

92
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What should be done before anesthesia to reduce the chance of foreign material entering the OR?

clean out hooves

93
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What standing sedative has the longest onset in horses?

acepromazine

94
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Which standing sedatives have the shortest onset in horses?

xylazine

butorphanol

95
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What tranquilizer is used for young/excited or uncooperative horses?

acepromazine

96
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What should acepromazine be avoided in?

hypotensive

low hematocrit

liver disease

97
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Acepromazine is given to horses ____________ before a procedure.

30 min - 1 hr

98
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______________________is the opioid of choice because it does not cause the same intestinal ileus as full mu opioids do, this is a huge concern in horses as they are prone to colic.

butorphanol

99
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What are the signs the horse is sedated

lower of head

drooping of the lip

shifting weight

not listening to surroundings

100
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What induction drug needs appropriate sedation prior to administration?

ketamine