Compounding Lecture Exam 1 Help

A parenteral nutrition compound with a final clinisol concentration of 7% and a final dextrose concentration of 20% should be given peripherally.

A. True

B. False

B. False

Norco 5/325, 1 q4-6 hrs prn pain, #24

The necessary documentation for dispensing 24 tablets is:

a. No documentation needed

b. Acute pain exemption

c. Mild to moderate pain

d. Acute pain exception

d. Acute pain exception

Percocet 5/325, 1 q6h prn pain, #30. Which of the following is required documentation to dispense the full quantity?

a. Non-acute pain

b. Chronic pain

c. Acute pain exception

d. Severe pain

a. Non-acute pain

Prescriptions for non-controlled drugs are valid for:

a. 72 hours from the date written

b. 1 year from the date written

c. 1 year from the initial refill

d. Never expire

b. 1 year from the date written

What is incorrect about Schedule II drugs ordering?

a. The supplier must process copy 1 and 2 only, and send copy 3 to the purchaser

b. The reverse distributor must submit DEA form 41 if the drugs are subject to transfer for destruction through a reverse distribution

c. The supplier need to submit copy 2 to the DEA and send copy 1 and 3 to the pharmacy

d. The purchaser retains copy 3 of the DEA 222 form

e. None of the above

c. The supplier need to submit copy 2 to the DEA and send copy 1 and 3 to the pharmacy

Which of the following is a cause for medication errors?

a. Interruptions

b. Distractions

c. Staffing

d. All of the above

d. All of the above

The Vertical Laminar flow hood within the ISO Class 7 Sterile IV room recently underwent viable testing. The laminar flow hood Viable air results with 1 Colony Formulating Unit which was not considered Highly pathogenic. The contact Surface of the Laminar flow hood was also tested and the surface viable testing results returned with 3 Colony Formulating Units which none were considered Highly Pathogenic. The Vertical Laminar flow hood is considered an ISO Class 5 environment. Based on the viable air and surface testing only, did the Laminar flow hood meet the required specifications to maintain its ISO Class 5 designation?

a. True

b. False

a. True

If Anthony's CO2 lab value is 36 mEq/L, this lab value is suggestive of metabolic acidosis?

a. True

b. False

b. False

Which of the following Enteral Nutrition Administration methods is the least likely to cause dumping syndrome?

a. Bolus

b. Intermittent

c. Continuous

d. Cyclic

c. Continuous

Which of the following Enteral Nutrition Administration methods is the most likely to cause dumping syndrome?

a. Bolus

b. Intermittent

c. Continuous

d. Cyclic

a. Bolus

Nasogastric

A tube in the nose to the stomach

Gastrostomy

A tube that goes through the skin into the stomach

Jejunostomy

A tube into the small intestine

For Immediate use compounded sterile products the Immediate use provision is intended only for which of the following? SATA

a. Emergency room treatment

b. Batch compounding

c. High risk level compounds

d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

e. Hazardous medication

a. Emergency room treatment

d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

Per USP 797 Guidelines, which of the following are required annual competencies for authorized sterile compounding personnel? SATA

a. Fingerprint test

b. Media fill test

c. Written Exam

d. Background Check

e. Illegal Drug use test

a. Fingerprint test

b. Media fill test

c. Written Exam

Per USP 797 guidelines, what is the minimum Room Air Exchanges Per Hour (ACPHs) required inside of an ISO Class 7 buffer area?

a. 8

b. 16

c. 22

d. 24

e. 30

e. 30

For emergency room treatment, due to the risk delayed therapy a low risk Immediate use compounded sterile product is made. This product is not made inside of an ISO Class 5 environment. What is the BUD for immediate use compounded sterile products?

a. 24 hours

b. 6 hours

c. 1 hour

d. 4 hours

e. 30 hours

c. 1 hour

Per USP 797 guidelines what is the minimum Room Air Exchanges Per Hour (ACPHs) required inside of an ISO class seven buffer area?

a. 8

b. 16

c. 22

d. 24

e. 30

e. 30

For an emergency room treatment, due to the risk of delayed therapy a low risk immediate use compounded sterile product is made. This product is not made inside of an ISO Class 5 environment. What is the BUD for intermediate use compounded sterile products?

a. 24 hours

b. 6 hours

c. 1 hour

d. 4 hours

e. 30 hours

c. 1 hour

You are asked to compound a sterile product inside of the sterile compounding suite, inside of the Vertical airflow Laminar hood. You use a Multi dose vial, so you have additional remaining product left in the sterile multidose vial. The package insert of the multidose vial does not indicate how long the vial is stable. How much time will this multidose vial be stable for?

a. 9 days

b. 14 days

c. 3 days

d. 28 days

e. 10 days

d. 28 days

The ISO Class 7 sterile compounding buffer room recently underwent viable testing. The viable air test results of location number 15 returned with 12 Colony Formulating Units and none of the CFU's were considered highly pathogenic. The buffer room is a ISO class 7 environment. Based on location number 15 viable air test results, did the buffer room meet the required specifications to maintain its ISO class seven designation.

a. True

b. False

b. False

Refeeding syndrome can present the following ways: SATA

a. Hypophosphatemia

b. Normal sodium and fluid balance

c. Hypokalemia

d. Thiamine deficiency

a. Hypophosphatemia

c. Hypokalemia

d. Thiamine deficiency

A patient with the flu visited the emergency room, and the BUN/SCr ratio indicated that the patient was dehydrated. The ER physician ordered the following IV compound to hydrate the patient: 1L NS, 10mL's MVI, 200 mg thiamine, and 1mg Folic acid. The compound is going to be compounded in an ISO class 5 Laminar flow hood. The laminator hood will be located inside of an ISO class 7 sterile buffer room. After referencing the scientific data the pharmacist notices that this compound is stable for seven days at room temperature. After referencing the USP 797 chapter how long will

this compound be stable for at room temperature?

a. 24 hours

b. 30 hours

c. 48 hours

d. 60 hours

b. 30 hours

How often are ceilings cleaned

a. Daily

b. Monthly

c. Yearly

d. Bi-weekly

b. Monthly

The nutrition support team ordered a TPN to be compounded with the following ingredients. The final volume is 2500 mL. In the TPN, there is 70 g of dextrose 70%, 40 g of Freeamine 10% and 5gg of Liposyn 20%. What is the final concentration (w/w%) of Dextrose in this TPN?

a. 0.028%

b. 0.28%

c. 2.8%

d. 28%

e. None are correct

c. 2.8%

Which of the following are indications of Parenteral nutrition therapy? SATA

a. Massive bowel resection

b. Small bowel obstruction

c. Homelessness

d. Flatulence

e. Eating disorder

a. Massive bowel resection

b. Small bowel obstruction

e. Eating disorder

How long should you wash your hands?

a. 1 minute

b. 30 seconds

c. 5 mins

d. 10 secs

b. 30 seconds

Which of the following is (are) advantages for Enteral Nutrition over Parenteral Nutrition use? SATA

a. Lower cost

b. Using the gut which prevents atrophy and other problems

c. Benefits for critically ill patients are further enhanced if enteral nutrition is initiated after 7 days of admission to an ICU

d. Lower risk for infections

a. Lower cost

b. Using the gut which prevents atrophy and other problems

d. Lower risk for infections

Enteral nutrition can be initiated before the patient is hemodynamically stable?

a. True

b. False

b. False

Which of the following is (are) indications for Enteral Nutrition? SATA

a. Inflammatory Bowel Disease

b. Anorexia Nervosa

c. Small Bowel Obstruction

d. Severe Depression

a. Inflammatory Bowel Disease

b. Anorexia Nervosa

d. Severe Depression

Which of the following medications do not directly fall within the 2-class drug distribution system in the state of Florida?

a. Pseudoephedrine

b. Clonazepam

c. Oxycodone

d. Acetaminophen

e. Phenazopyridine

a. Pseudoephedrine

The Unit Dose System is ONLY available via automation:

a. Medicine OnTime

b. Rx-MAP System

c. 30 Day Box System

d. Multiple Envelopes

e. 30 Day Punch Cards

d. Multiple Envelopes

Which US amendment created the two classes drug distribution system?

a. Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987

b. Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951)

c. Orphan Drug Act (1983)

d. Kefauver Harris Amendment (1962)

e. Pure Food and Drugs Act (1906)

b. Durham-Humphrey Amendment (1951)

Advantages of Unit Dose Systems include:

a. Increased time spent by the patient for administration

b. 3- & 6-month dosing systems all for fewer refills being needed

c. There is a higher chance of non-adherence

d. Dispensing is often more efficient and economical

e. All of the listed answers are correct

d. Dispensing is often more efficient and economical

When filling a prescription for a controlled substance, which of the following in not a requirement of the prescription?

a. Prescriber DEA number

b. Brand and generic name

c. Patient address

d. Dosage form

e. Prescriber address

b. Brand and generic name

Which of the following are NOT common users of Drug Distribution Systems?

a. Assisted Living Facilities

b. Hospitals

c. Long-term care facilities

d. Health insurance companies

e. Nursing homes

d. Health insurance companies

For the treatment of travelers' diarrhea then usual adult dose is 1 SMZ/TMP DS tablet po every 12 hours for 5 days. If the pharmacist has SMZ/TMP suspension(200mg/40ng/5mL) in stock. How many teaspoonfuls of the suspension are required to fill the supply?

a. 45 teaspoonfuls

b. 50 teaspoonfuls

c. 40 teaspoonfuls

d. 35 teaspoonfuls

e. None of the listed answers are correct

c. 40 teaspoonfuls

A pharmacist needs to prepare a spironolactone oral liquid with a concentration of 75mg/5mL for a patient that cannot swallow tablets. The patient will take 1 tsp daily and needs a 30 days' supply.

How much liquid will be needed for the 30 days' supply?

How many mg will be needed to prepare this liquid?

How many 100mg spironolactone tablets will be needed?

a. 150 ml, 2250 mg, 23 tablets

b. 160 ml, 2250 mg, 22 tablets

c. 150 ml, 2260 mg, 21 tablets

d. 150 ml, 2250 mg, 22.5 tablets

e. 150 ml, 2250 mg, 21.5 tablets

d. 150 ml, 2250 mg, 22.5 tablets

Which of the following is NOT a legitimate need for a compounded preparation?

a. A provide a medication that is on back-order or has been discontinued

b. To compound a commercially available product to offer a less expensive preparation

c. To improve compliance by altering the taste, changing the dosage form (tablet to a liquid) or combine medications

d. To remove additives or filters which the patient may be sensitive

e. To provide anticipatory compounding based on the history of compounding

b. To compound a commercially available product to offer a less expensive preparation

One of the documents required by chapters 795 and 797 required when using bulk chemicals is a Certificate of Analysis (CofA). Which of the following is not true regarding (CofAs)?

a. It is a written agreement between the seller of a chemical and you the purchaser, warranting the content of the chemical in certain key areas

b. Provides the name of the chemical and its salt or base form

c. Provides the description of the chemical-what it looks like and if it has any characteristic odor. et cetera

d. Provides the assay of the chemical and the amount of water in the chemical

e. Does not change with each lot number

e. Does not change with each lot number

Drugs considered hazardous by the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) include the following characteristics except:

a. Genotoxicity

b. Reproductive toxicity

c. Addiction risk

d. Carcinogenicity

e. Teratogenicity

c. Addiction risk

RX: Nitroglycerin 0.125 mg Ointment 30 grams

You have in stock Nitroglycerin 2% ointment and white petrolatum. How much NTG 2% and petrolatum will you need to make 30 grams of NTG 0.125%?

a. NTG 2% = 2.5 g, petrolatum 27.5 g

b. NTG 2% = 2.14 g, petrolatum 27.86 g

c. NTG 2% = 1.875 g, petrolatum 28.125 g

d. NTG 2% = 1.5 g, petrolatum 28.5 g

e. NTG 2% = 1.25 g, petrolatum 28.75 g

c. NTG 2% = 1.875 g, petrolatum 28.125 g

In the most recent edition of the chapter 795 in the absence of specific stability studies or USP monograph is the maximum BUD that can be assigned to non-aqueous dosage forms (i.e. suppositories, ointments, fixed oils, and waxes)?

a. 35

b. 60

c. 90

d. 120

e. 180

c. 90

Master formula record as requested by Chapters 795 must include the following except:

a. Name, strength, and dosage form of the CNSP

b. Assigned BUD dose for the CNSP

c. Physical description of the final CNSP

d. Identities and amounts of all components

e. The lot number and patient who received the preparation

e. The lot number and patient who received the preparation

When washing your hands before beginning sterile compounding activities, you must wash your hands for what time period?

a. 15 seconds

b. 30 seconds

c. 45 seconds

d. 60 seconds

e. None of the listed answers are correct

b. 30 seconds

Hazardous drugs should be compounded in the following type of device:

a. Vertical laminar flow hood

b. Horizontal laminar flow hood

c. Diagonal laminar flow hood

d. Biological Safety Cabinet

e. None of the listed answers are correct

d. Biological Safety Cabinet

The Vertical Laminar flow hood within the ISO Class 7 Sterile IV room recently underwent viable testing. The laminar flow hood viable air results returned with 1 colony formulating unit which was no considered highly pathogenic. The contact surface of the laminar flow hood was also tested, and the surface viable testing results returned with 3 colony formulating units which none were considered highly pathogenic. The Vertical Laminar flow hood is considered an ISO Class 5 environment. Based on the viable air and surface testing only, did the Laminar flow hood meet the requirement specifications to maintain its ISO Class 5 designation?

a. True

b. False

a. True

A 21 year old male came into the ER after drinking too much alcohol partying that night because he felt sick. The physician analyzed the BUN SCr ratio as well as the patient's physical appearance and determined that the patient was dehydrated. The physician orders a sterile IV compounded product called "Banana bag" to hydrate the patient. The order comes to the pharmacy and the ingredients needed to compound this product are:

Adult Multivitamins (!0mL vial)

IL Normal Saline bag

Thiamine (100 mg vial)

Folic acid (1 mg)

Magnesium sulfate (5 mEq)

What risk level is the aforementioned sterile compound?

a. Low risk

b. Medium risk

c. High risk

d. Ultra High risk

b. Medium risk

You have in the pharmacy Kenalog 0.5% and 1% cream. You receive a prescription for Kenalog 0.78% cream (1/2 lb). How much of the 1% cream (in grams) should be used to compound this prescription?

a. 89

b. 100

c. 127

d. 154

e. None are correct

c. 127

You must compound a TPN. The final volume is 2,500 mL. In the TPN, there is (70 grams) of Dextrose 70%, 40 grams of Freeamine 10%, and 5 grams of Liposyn 20%. What is the final concentration (%) of Freeamine in this TPN?

a. 1.2

b. 1.6

c. 2

d. 2.5

e. None are correct

b. 1.6

According to 797, under personnel cleaning and garbing, which of the following must be removed before entering the buffer room? SATA

a. Jacket

b. Wedding ring

c. Eye Shields

d. Donned shoes

e. Artificial nails

a. Jacket

b. Wedding ring

e. Artificial nails

What is the minimum frequency of cleaning and disinfecting floors in a sterile compounding area? (797)

a. Every 8 hours

b. Every 24 hours

c. Every 48 hours

d. Every 72 hours

e. Once weekly

b. Every 24 hours

Levels of which of the following medications are increased by furosemide administration?

a. Benzonatate

b. Lithium

c. Losartan

d. Sodium fluoride

e. Travoprose

b. Lithium

Which of the following medications is on the look-a-like, sound-a-like (LASA) list? SATA

a. Hydroxyzine

b. Finasteride

c. Guaifenesin

d. Nimodipine

e. Apixaban

a. Hydroxyzine

c. Guaifenesin

d. Nimodipine

When attempting to avoid incompatibles in the ICU, which of the following statements is correct?

a. Combine no more than 3 drugs during an IV infusion

b. Use of multi-lumen central catheters

c. Switch rapidly to oral drugs

d. Classify drugs according to pH

e. Use trivalent cations

b. Use of multi-lumen central catheters

c. Switch rapidly to oral drugs

d. Classify drugs according to pH

Which of the following medication sis on the negative formulary? SATA

a. Digoxin

b. Pancrealipase

c. Theophylline

d. Chlorpromazine (Liquids)

e. Conjugated estrogens

b. Pancrealipase

e. Conjugated estrogens

Calculate the IV rate of flow for 1200 mL of NaCl 0.9% to be infused over 6 hours. The infusion set is calibrated for a drop factor of 15 drops per milliliter.

a. 35 drops per minute

b. 50 drops per minute

c. 65 drops per minute

d. 80 drops per minute

e. None of the above are correct

b. 50 drops per minute

A pharmacy intern recommends for an infection Primaxin 675 mg every 5 hours for 14 days. The intern also recommends that Primaxin be reconstituted and mixed in 100 mL of Dextrose 5% / Sodium Chloride 0.45%. Nursing instructions are to infuse over 20 minutes as directed. The expiration date is 72 hours from the date of mixing. After reviewing the handbook of injectable drugs, as the pharmacist, which of the following would you change with regard to the intern's recommendations? SATA

a. Dose

b. Final Concentration

c. Expiration date

d. Mixing Solution

e. Frequency of administration

b. Final Concentration

c. Expiration date

d. Mixing Solution

At what temperature do we store a pharmaceutical product if they product is

required to be Stored at room temperature?

a. 20°C to 25°C

b. -10°C to -25°C

c. 2°C to 8°C

d. 8°C to 14°C

e. 30°C to 45°C

a. 20°C to 25°C

Film wrappers are used for tamper resistant packaging. Which of the following are considered a type of film wrapper? SATA

a. End Folded Wrapper

b. Jacket Wrapper

c. Shrink Wrapper

d. Internal Wrapper

e. Fin Seal Wrapper

a. End Folded Wrapper

c. Shrink Wrapper

e. Fin Seal Wrapper

For an emergency room treatment, due to the risk of delayed therapy a low risk immediate use compounded sterile product is made. This product is not made inside of an ISO Class 5 environment. What is the BUD for immediate use compounded sterile products?

a. 24 hours

b. 6 hours

c. 1 hour

d. 4 hours

e. 30 hours

c. 1 hour

Personnel Training and Assessments are required every so often for all personnel who are authorized to participate in any sterile compounding activities. For a Medium Risk facility, how often are Personnel required to complete sterile compounding training and assessments?

a. One time per year

b. Two times per year

c. Three times per year

d. Four times per year

e. One time every other year

a. One time per year

You are asked to compound a sterile product inside of the sterile compounding suite inside of the Vertical airflow Laminar hood. You use a Multi dose vial, so you have additional remaining product left in the sterile multi dose vial. The package inserts of the Multi dose vial dose not indicated how long the vial is stable. How much time will this multi dose vial be stable for?

a. 9 days

b. 14 days

c. 3 days

d. 28 days

e. 10 days

d. 28 days

The Vertical Laminar flow hood within the ISO Class 7 Sterile IV room recently underwent viable testing. The laminar flow hood Viable air results returned with 0Colony Formulating Unit which was not considered highly pathogenic. The contact surface of the laminar flow hood was also tested, and the surface viable testing results returned with 1 colony formulating units which is considered highly pathogenic. The Vertical Laminar flow hood is considered an ISO Class 5 environment. Based on the viable surface testing only, did the Laminar flow hood surface meet the required specifications to maintain its ISO Class 5 designation?

a. Yes

b. No

b. No

A 42-year-old male was admitted to the Cardiovascular intensive care unit after coding twice at home. The ambulance arrived soon enough to revive the patient. The physician analyzed the patient and patient obviously had edema. Immediately the physician ordered a furosemide drip 250 mg in 250 mL of NS. The physician order comes to the pharmacy, and you compound the sterile furosemide drip using the following products: 250 mL normal saline bag and a 300 mg vial furosemide. What risk level is the aforementioned sterile compound?

a. Low

b. Medium

c. High

d. Ultra-High

e. Medium-High

a. Low

What is the correct garbing order when gowning and garbing to begin sterile

compounding activities?

a. Order does not matter

b. Dirtiest to Cleanest

c. Cleanest to Dirtiest

b. Dirtiest to Cleanest

Which is incorrectly matched?

a. Punch card time pass - separates medications based on time of administration

b. Punch cards - cross contamination

c. DISPILL 7 day system - color picture of patient

d. MULTIPAK envelopes - only available via automation

e. OPTI-PAK 14 day system - color-coded

b. Punch cards - cross contamination

Which form should be filled out to get a chemical distributor registration?

A. DEA 510

B. DEA 363

C. DEA 224

D. DEA 225

E. DEA 222

A. DEA 510

For a Schedule II opioid drug prescribe in a post-surgical setting:

A. Treatment for acute pain may not exceed 5 days

B. For the treatment of pain other than acute pain, a practitioner must indicate "NONACUTE PAIN" on the prescription.

C. For the treatment of pain related to a traumatic injury with an Injury Severity Score of 8 or greater, a practitioner must concurrently prescribe an emergency opioid antagonist

D. Treatment may not exceed 10 days maximum

E. All of the above

B. For the treatment of pain other than acute pain, a practitioner must indicate "NONACUTE PAIN" on the prescription.

Who can submit a copy of the DEA 222 to the DEA's office?

I. A DEA registered supplier

II. A DEA registered reverse distributor

III. A DEA registered pharmacy

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II, and III

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

D. I and II only

Who can transfer a Schedule III prescription between pharmacies?

I. A technician under direct supervision of a pharmacist to another pharmacist

II. An intern to a pharmacist

III. A pharmacist to a pharmacist

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II, and III

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

E. II and III only

Which form should be processed to destroy Schedule II drugs through a reverse distributor by a pharmacy?

A. DEA 2226

B. DEA 41

C. DEA 106

D. DEA 224

E. DEA 363

B. DEA 41

Copy 3 of the DEA form 222 is eventually kept by the:

A. DEA

B. Supplier

C. Pharmacy

D. Purchaser

E. Pharmacist

D. Purchaser

Who can transfer a Schedule III prescription between pharmacies?

I. A technician under direct supervision of a pharmacist to another pharmacist

II. An intern to a pharmacist

III. A pharmacist to a pharmacist

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II, and III

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

E. II and III only

A pharmacy may dispense in partial quantities of Schedule II prescriptions for patients in:

I. Nursing homes

II. Long-term care facilities

III. Assisted living facilities

A. I only

B. III only

C. I, II, and III

D. I and II only

E. II and III only

D. I and II only

What is incorrect about schedule II drugs ordering?

A. The supplier has to process copy 1 and 2 only.

B. The reverse distributor has to submit DEA form 41 if the drugs are subject to transfer for destruction through a reverse distributor.

C. The supplier needs to submit copy 2 to the DEA and an invoice to the pharmacy.

D. The purchaser retains copy 3 of the DEA 22 form

C. The supplier needs to submit copy 2 to the DEA and an invoice to the pharmacy.

A pharmacist may only dispense a substitute biological product for the prescribed biological product if:

A. The FDA has determined that the substitute biological product is biosimilar to and interchangeable for the prescribed biological product.

B. The prescribing health care provider does not express a preference against

substitution in writing, verbally, or electronically.

C. The pharmacist notifies the person presenting the prescription of the substitution.

D. The pharmacist retains a written or electronic record of the substitution for at least 2 years.

E. All of the above

E. All of the above

A person who willfully and knowingly fails to report the dispensing of a controlled substance as required by this section commits:

A. A misdemeanor of the first degree

B. A felony of the first degree

C. A misdemeanor of the second degree

D. A felony of the second degree

E. No criminal penalty

A. A misdemeanor of the first degree

A pharmacist may perform centralized prescription filling for multiple pharmacies:

A. Yes

B. No

C. Yes, if all pharmacies have the same owner

D. Yes, if all pharmacies are in the same state

E. Florida does not allow for centralized prescription filling

C. Yes, if all pharmacies have the same owner

Can a pharmacist accept a hard copy of a controlled substance from a Mexican physician?

A. Yes, for both controlled and non-controlled substances

B. No, for all drugs

C. Yes, if standards of Mexican laws match the US standards

D. For C-III through C-V drugs only

E. Yes, if the MD is registered with the DEA

E. Yes, if the MD is registered with the DEA

In case of a state emergency order, how many days' supply can be filled by a pharmacist without the refill authorization from the prescriber?

A. 30 days

B. 72 hours

C. 7 days

D. 14 days

E. Only the days needed to cover the emergency period

A. 30 days

What cannot be changed on a Schedule III prescription with the prescriber's permission?

A. The drug quantity

B. The date written

C. The refill information

D. The drug strength

E. The prescriber's name

E. The prescriber's name

For a TPN to be used through peripheral access, the concentration of amino acids should be between:

A. 1-2%

B. 2-4%

C. 3-5%

D. 5-10%

E. 10-15%

C. 3-5%

What are some of the advantages of using peripheral access TPN bags over central access? SATA

A. Lower risk of infections

B. The ability to meet nutritional needs

C. Metabolic and technical complication

D. May be used for more than 14 days

E. Can be given to people who need more fluid

A. Lower risk of infections

C. Metabolic and technical complication

For patients with severe liver disease, which of the following trace elements should be withheld? SATA

A. Chromium

B. Molybdenum

C. Manganese

D. Copper

E. Selenium

C. Manganese

D. Copper

Which drug adheres to the enteral nutrition tube when used as an oral suspension? Instead, the immediate release tablets should be used.

A. Warfarin

B. Tetracycline

C. Cipro Dextrose

D. Bactrim

E. Vancomycin

C. Cipro Dextrose

Which of the following administration methods should be used for patients who are not eating well during the day or not able to consume during the day to meet their needs?

A. Bolus

B. Continuous

C. Intermittent

D. Cyclic

D. Cyclic

When combined with calcium, which of the following may cause precipitation in a TPN bag?

A. Magnesium

B. Sulfur

C. Sodium

D. Phosphorus

E none of the above

D. Phosphorus

When infusing IV antibiotics, what is size micron filter should be used inside of the pump?

A. 0.13

B. 0.22

C. 0.85

D. 1.2

E. none of the above

B. 0.22

Which is incompatible with phosphorus?

Calcium gluconate

The Unit Dose System is only available via automation:

A. Medicine on Time

B. Rx-MAP system

C. 30-day Box System

D. Multipak envelops

E. 30day Punch Cards

D. Multipak envelops

Which US amendment created the two-class distribution system?

A. Prescription drug marketing act of 1987

B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

C. Orphan Drug Act of 1983

D. Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

E. Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

B. Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

Advantages of Unit dose systems include:

A. Increased time spent by the patients for administration b. 3- and 6-month dosing systems allow for fewer refills being needed

B. There is a higher chance of non-adherence

C. Dispensing is often more efficient and economical

D. All of the listed answers are correct

C. Dispensing is often more efficient and economical

When filling a prescription for a controlled substance, which of the following is not a requirement of the prescription?

A. Prescriber DEA number

B. Brand and generic name

C. Patient address

D. Dosage form

E. Prescriber address

B. Brand and generic name

Which of the following are not common users of drug distribution systems?

A. Assisted living facilities

B. Hospitals

C. Long-term facilities

D. Health insurance companies

E. Nursing homes

D. Health insurance companies

For the treatment of travelers' diarrhea, the usual adult dose is 1 SMZ/TMP DS tablet po every 12hours for 5 days. If a pharmacist has SMZ/TMP suspension (200mg/40mg/5mL) in stock, how many teaspoonfuls of the suspension are required to fill the supply?

A. 45 teaspoonfuls

B. 50 teaspoonfuls

C. 40 teaspoonfuls

D. 35 teaspoonfuls

E. None of the listed answers are correct

C. 40 teaspoonfuls

A pharmacist needs to prepare a spironolactone oral liquid with a concentration of 75mg/5mL for a patient that cannot swallow tablets. The patient will take 1 tsp daily and needs a 30 days' supply. How much liquid will be needed for the 30 days' supply? How many mg will be needed to prepare this liquid? How many 100mg spironolactone tablets will be needed?

A. 150mL, 2250mg, 23 tablets

B. 160mL, 2250mg, 22 tablets

C. 150mL, 2260mg, 21 tablets

D. 150mL, 2250mg, 22.5 tablets

E. 150mL, 2250mg, 21.5 tablets

D. 150mL, 2250mg, 22.5 tablets

Which of the following is NOT a legitimate need for a compounded prescription?

A. To provide medication that is on back-ordered or has been discontinued

B. To compound a commercially available product to offer a less expensive preparation

C. To improve compliance by altering taste, changing the dosage form (tablet to a liquid), or combining medications

D. To remove additives or filters which the patients may be sensitive

E. None of the above

B. To compound a commercially available product to offer a less expensive preparation

RX: hydroxyprogesterone caproate injection Hydroxyprogesterone caproate 25g Benzyl benzoate 46mL Benzyl alcohol 2ml Castor oil QS 100ml What is the concentration of hydroxyprogesterone caproate in each mL? NO The USP allowable limits for this compound is plus or minus 10% of the theoretical concentration. Calculate the acceptable range of concentration allowable by USP. SATA

A. 0.25g/mL (range 0.215-0.275g/mL)

B. 200mg/mL (range 180-220mg/mL)

C. 250mg/mL (range 245-260mg/mL)

D. 250mg/mL (range 225-275mg/mL)

E. None of the listed answers are correct

C. 250mg/mL (range 245-260mg/mL)

D. 250mg/mL (range 225-275mg/mL)

You have in the pharmacy 0.5% and 1% cream. You receive a prescription for

Kenalog 0.78 cream (1/2 pound). How much of the 1% cream (in grams) should be used to compound this prescription/?

A. 89

B. 100

C. 127

D. 154

C. 127