Assignment 2

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100 Terms

1
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because of the extra equipment now placed on ambulances for specialty rescue, advance life support, and hazardous material operations, their gross vehicle weight has been easily exceeded in some communities. this has necessitated introduction of a ___ truck chassis built for rugged durability and large storage to work
medium-duty
2
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you have transported a stable patient with complaints of having abdominal pain for the last three weeks to the hospital. on arrival you notice the emergency department is very busy and there are no empty beds to be found. you have attempted to get the attention of a hospital staff member to transfer the pt, but all are currently helping other pt’s. your partner tells you to take the pt to the waiting room and leave him since the dispatcher of your service is holding several other serious calls. what could possible happen to you if you leave the pt in this fashion?
you could possibly be charged with abandonment
3
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tests have shown that ___ ambulance operations tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding
inexperienced
4
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police escort of ambulance driving at emergency status are typically discouraged because
drivers who pull over for the police officer pull back in front of the ambulance
5
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operations of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. this is known as driving
with due regard
6
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inexperienced drivers tend to ___ when they hear a siren approaching
speed up
7
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which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the emergency medical dispatch
providing medical direction to the responding units
8
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you respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. which of the following pt would receive priority 1 transport
25 YO with abdominal bruising and signs of shock
9
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transporting a patient to the hospital against his will could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for
kidnapping
10
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while staffing an emergency services dispatch center, an emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. which of the following would the EMD need to do in this situation
provide the caller with information on local hospitals
11
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a study of emergency collisions demonstrated that the majority of collisions occurred
at intersections
12
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the US department of transportation has issued specifications for all of the following types of ambulances except
type IV
13
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most states statues allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency calls
exceed posted speed limits without endangering life and property
14
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which phase of an ambulance call is characterized by receiving a report from the off going shift and checking the functions of equipment
preparing for the ambulance
15
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which of the following is the correct order of operations when garnering a stable pt from his or her house to an ambulance
select the proper patient-carrying device, package the pt for transport, move the pt to the ambulance, and load the pt into the ambulance
16
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which of the following contributes MOST simnifically to the occurrence of ambulance crashes
speed of the vehicle
17
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the KKK standards deal with
ambulance safety and design
18
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when responding to an emergency in an authorized vehicle while functioning as an EMT for an authorized emergency service, the actions you take while driving are
subject to laws that govern all drivers
19
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regarding ambulance warning devices, which of the following statements is NOT true
the large lights on the outermost corner of the ambulance box should blink alternately
20
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failure to formally transfer the PT to medical staff in the emergency department could place the EMT in danger of being held liable for
abandonment
21
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you have transported a pt to the emergency department and are in the process of cleaning the ambulance while your partner is completing all required paperwork. at which point is the final phase of an ambulance call complete
after your partner completes all required paperwork and you have the ambulance completely cleaned and restocked
22
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chemical cold packs are carried on the ambulance for treatment of which of the following
musculoskeletal injuries
23
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which of the following situations may warrant the use of helicopter transport from the scene to a medical facility
the pt is loaded in a remote area
24
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which of the following transport positions is indicated for the pt in shock
legs raised 8 to 12 inches
25
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you are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one pt who is in stable condition. at this point, the call can be categorized as
no longer a true emergency
26
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which of the following personal protective items must be used by EMS personnel caring for pts in a hazardous materials emergency
tyvek or other chemical impermeable coveralls
27
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when responding to a multiple casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following
waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated sector officer
28
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Eduardo is an EMT with a major metropolitan fire department. he is assigned to a station within an industrial complex. on scene of a hazardous materials incident, Eduardo functions on a team where he plugs a leaky drum. Eduardo’s level of hazardous material training is at the ___ level
hazardous materias technician
29
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you arrive on scene where a school pus has been hit by a train. the bus was in it’s early stages of picking up students and you have 5 patients. your closest unit Is 30 minutes away. triage this patient based on this scenario: PT #1 is a 16 YO F with the following vital signs: RR 28, HR 132, and altered mental status with cool, clammy skin.
priority 1, red tag p
30
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which of the following is a feature of a good disaster plan
all of the above
31
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when grossly decontaminating a pt who is to wearing personal protective equipment in a hazardous materials incident, which of the following techniques should be used
taking a low pressure decontamination shower
32
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simple triage and rapid treatment (START) is a system that relies on some simple commands and what three physiologic parameters
respiration, pulse and mental status
33
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you arrive on the scene where a school but has been hit by a train. the bus was in its early stage of picking up students and you only have 5 pt’s. your closest unit is 30 minutes away. triage this pt based on this scenario: PT #4 is a 13 YO F with the following vital signs: RR 8, HR 124, and nonresponsive with blood from the ears and nose
priority 1, red tag
34
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you arrive on the scene where a school but has been hit by a train. the bus was in its early stage of picking up students and you only have 5 pt’s. your closest unit is 30 minutes away. triage this pt based on this scenario: PT #5 is a 17 YO M with the following vital signs: RR 18, HR 104, crying, and wanting his mother; he is ambulatory
priority 3, green tag
35
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when informing someone of the death of a loved one due to a multiple casualty incident, you should use the term
dead
36
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an area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident on a higher ground is a good location for a
safe zone
37
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you are beginning triage at the scene of a mass casualty indecent in which a commuter train has derailed. which is the following should you do first
announce that everyone who can get up and walk needs to go to the parking lot of a nearby building
38
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at 0330 you respond to the scene of an overturned tanker truck. what organization could you contact to obtain information about the liquid in the truck is carrying
CHEMTREC
39
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using START triage guidelines, a pt on the scene of mass casualty incident who is not breathing initially, but begins breathing when the airway is open is deemed a ___ pt
priority 1
40
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you arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. the bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have five pt’s. your closest unit is 30 minutes away. triage this patient based on the scenario:

\
Pt 3 is a 38 YO F with the following vital signs: RR 0, HR 0 and non responsive
priority 4, black tag
41
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the senior EMT on the first vehicle that arrived on scene with multiple pt’s should assume which of the following roles until relieved by senior official
incident commander of the scene
42
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using START triage guidelines, a pt on scene of a mass-casualty incident who has no pulse is deemed a ___ pt
priority 0
43
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to respond to a hazardous material the EMT should be trained at which of the four levels
awareness
44
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which of the following is NOT the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materiel emergency
rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill
45
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you are called to a local hardware store for a male pt complaining of difficulty breathing. as you pull into the parking lot you notice several people in front of the building coughing and in obvious distress. what would be an appropriate course of action at this point
evaluate the scene for further indications of a hazardous environment and request a hazardous materials response
46
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you are in charge of your departments personnel at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. as the incident progresses, you request additional resources and a neighboring department assists you. as a part of this department’s response, a battalion chief responds to oversee operations. at the command post, you and the battalion chief work together to manage the incident. this cooperative management effort is known as
unified command
47
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which of the following is NOT a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials
deodorizing
48
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using START triage guidelines, a PT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident who is alert and has a capillary refill time of less than 2 seconds is deemed a ___ PT
priority 3
49
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which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies
OSHA and EPA
50
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when seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide
amount of the substance involved
51
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when placing cribbing
always squat so that you can move away quickly
52
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stabilizing a vehicle is unnecessary when a vehicle is on its roof with
all roof support collapsed and the roof crushed against the vehicles body
53
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which of the following may be a source of ignition when an ambulance is parked off the roadway in a field of dried grass
catalytic conerter
54
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which of the following is the MOST common type of rescue across the United States
vehicle rescue
55
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which of the following describes vehicle glass that is designed to break into small pieces rather than shattering into sharp fragments
tempered glass
56
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an unresponsive pt is found sitting in the front seat of a chicle with his legs pinned under the dash. once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the pt
rapid extrication technique
57
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which of the following phases of extraction follows the other three phases
immobilizing and extracting the pt
58
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which of the following best describes why it is important for the EMT to understand the extrication process
to anticipate any dangerous steps in the extrication process
59
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which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a pt who has been in a vehicle collision
your own safety
60
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which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the pt rather than pulling the patient through an open window
to allow for proper spinal immobilization
61
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you have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are utility wires down around the vehicle. the three occupants appear dazed and other responding unit have not yet arrived. which of the following is the BEST course of action
stay at a distance and caution the occupants to stay inside the vehicle
62
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which of the following should the EMT consider when protecting a patient during extrication
goggles
63
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if you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how you should park your apparatus
establish command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking
64
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which of the following is an unsafe behavior that contributes to most injuries at the scene of vehicle collisions?
not wearing proper protective gear
65
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which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision
it should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel
66
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which of the following can serve as appropriate eye protection for an emt on the scene of an extrication
face conforming goggles
67
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which of the following should be used to protect a pt during extrication
goggles
68
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you are at the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a single vehicle has collided with a tree. you note that the driver’s side airbag has deployed. which of the following is recommended by airbag manufactures
lift the air bag and inspect the steering wheel for damage
69
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upon arrival at the scene of a motor vehicle collision, you find a vehicle that is on fire. the fire is confined to the engine compartment and the hood is tightly closed. of the following, which is the best course of action
let the fire burn and concentrate on extricating the pt
70
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which of the following methods should the EMT use first to attempt to access a pt in a vehicle while awaiting arrival of a rescue crew
try all of the vehicles doors to see if they will open
71
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which of the following is a common reason that EMT’s are struck by motor vehicles at the scene of a motor vehicle collision on roadways
drivers are distracted by the scene of the collision and do not pay attention to what they’re doing
72
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which of the following phases of extrication comes before the other three phases
preparing for the rescue
73
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you are on the scene of a vehicle collision involving a downed power line. you are walking in an area you feel is a safe distance from the line and begin feeling a tingling sensation in your feet. which of the following would be a proper method of ensuring your safety while exiting the area
turn 180 degrees to the direction you are walking and shuffle away from the danger area
74
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which of the following measures can the EMT can take to create a safer extrication scene
setting up road flares every 10 feet for a safe distance to divert traffic away from the collision
75
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you are assessing a pt in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head on collision. as you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the airbags have not deployed. what action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work
disconnect the battery and wait two minutes before entering the vehicle
76
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dangerous organisms can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as
bacteria
77
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primary injuries fro a blast include
lung injuries
78
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the formula dose multiplied by time represents which of the following
exposure
79
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someone who has more hair than average on his body is at a higher risk than someone with less hair to be exposed to a toxin by which of the following routes
absorption
80
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which two types if terrorism does the federal bureau of investigation define as occurring in the United States
domestic and international
81
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which of the following types of radiation emits the most powerful rays
gamma
82
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a type of harm that you may be exposed to as an EMT responding to a terrorist incident that is characterized by a resulting post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is typically called a(n)
physical harm
83
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which of the following methods of decontamination is NOT usually a prehospital activity during a terrorism incident
neutralization
84
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the best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent exposing a large number of people would be to
steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision
85
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which of the following is NOT generally recognized as a form of terrorist incident
harassment
86
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which of the following does NOT have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a mass-casualty incident
whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure
87
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an outbreak of which of the following illness would be LEAST likely to occur naturally
anthrax
88
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standard management of chemical burn caused by terrorist incident include
irrigate vigorously with cool water
89
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biological warfare is MOST effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes
respiratory tract
90
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which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks
high infectivity
91
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secondary injuries from a blast include
impaled objects
92
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which of the following is a type of chemical weapon
vesicants
93
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you arrived on scene of an unknown emergency. as you scan the surrounding area, you notice a large number of people wearing unique armbands and shouting ant-government comments though you are not aware of any public gatherings scheduled for today. your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the results of
on scene warning signs
94
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which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure of the bacterium that cause the plague in humans
fleas
95
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terrorist incidents typically involve all the following agents except
allergens
96
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which of the following is a consideration when responding to a terrorist incident
all of the above
97
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you are on an ambulance responding to a mass casualty incident at a shopping mall on a warm Saturday afternoon. en route, you listen to the incident commander broadcast information to dispatch and all inbound units about 20 pt’s complaining of respiratory difficulty and burning sensation in their eyes. your suspicions of a potential terrorist incident are the results of
the type of event
98
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in which of the following best defines domestic terrorism
small group of people directing violent acts at the population or government without foreign influence
99
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which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells
cyanide
100
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two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident are
crime scene considerations and targeting responders