BPSI 405

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Last updated 7:47 PM on 12/16/25
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147 Terms

1
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T/F? 3 O2 molecules bound to Hgb is 75% saturation.

True

2
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T/F? Each Hgb protein can bind 4 O2 molecules.

True

3
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T/F? Hgb is a protein that O2 can bind to.

True (Hgb)

4
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T/F? O2 is transported by RBCs.

True

5
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T/F? Each Hgb protein can bind to 1 O2 molecule.

False (O2)

6
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What is the systolic BP for category 2 hypertension?

>140 mmHg

7
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Fumaryl diketopiperazine (FDKP) is a proprietary _____ that is the primary component of Technosphere Microparticles.

excipient;

this is used to deliver insulin to the alveolus of the human lung

8
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Technosphere Microparticles (2.25 micrometer diameter) self-assemble from FDKP. This is a key respirable range for a lung.

Particles must dissolve in lung fluid upon reaching it to release drug

9
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<p>Average serum insulin and FDKP concentrations versus time in healthy volunteers indicate that the lung surface allows</p>

Average serum insulin and FDKP concentrations versus time in healthy volunteers indicate that the lung surface allows

for excipient and drug to be absorbed into bloodstream, more and less respectively

10
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Based on characteristics of lung physiology, the more rapid absorption of insulin from AFREZA to blood vs subcutaneous injections is due to

the largest surface area and vascular bed area of the lung

11
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Due to the growth factor signaling PDFG/VEGF/FGF pulmonary fibrosis, nintedanib is administered to IPF patients

using oral dosage forms

12
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Idopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) has a strong link to

drugs, chronic inflammation, environment, lifestyle

13
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Mode of action of nitedanib in the treatment of IPF is thought to occur via the _____ of _____

inhibition; receptors for profibrotic mediators

14
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Where is the gut microbiome located in the body?

The large/small intestines and colon

15
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How many microorganisms comprise the human microbiota?

100 trillion

16
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What is dysbiosis?

an imbalance of microorganisms in the GI tract

17
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T/F? The terms microbiota and microbiome can be used interchangeably as they define the same concept

False

18
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What are some causes of dysbiosis?

Medication use, changes in diet, infections (for exam it will be all of the above)

19
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What is the gut-brain connection?

nerve and neuron network, e.g. vagus nerve connecting CNS and digestive system

20
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What are some scientifically proven ways to improve gut health?

Exercise, reduce stress, drugs (will be all of the above on exam)

21
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Prevention of recurrence of C. difficile infection (CDI) in individuals >18 years of age

following antibacterial treatment for recurrent CDI has 2 approved drugs

22
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T/F? Probiotic supplements can generally help improve the makeup of microbes in the gut microbiome

False

23
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The orally administered microbiome related product (approved to treat certain types of CDI) contains

gut microbiome spores in a capsulated vehicle with glycerol and saline

24
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Which foods in diet are supportive of the gut microbiome?

Probiotic rich foods

25
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T/F? Rebyota is an oral microbiome-spore gel-capsule & Vowst is a 150mL volume rectal microbiome-live enema PEG3350 in saline

False 

26
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NEJM 2018 article describes 2 pts. that got ill, one died, following experimental FMT, from same donor, triggered a

safety alert & screening of donors for infectious E. coli with beta-lactamase

27
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In Ocusert ®, what precorneal nonproductive processes are most negated for pilocarpine?

Tear turnover (production and drainage)

28
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T/F? VOWST and REBYOTA both have an established MOA and defined nonclinical toxicology data/info

False

29
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A 1% ocular suspension of brinzolamide improves ocular PK by (select all)

  • adding a dissolution step prior to corneal absorption

  • inc. precorneal residence time via particle dissolution step

30
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Timolol XE ® brand is a topical ______ gel forming solution (rxn with Na in tears)

in situ

31
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For acyclovir, corneal herpes virus, an ocular ointment (select all)

  • rapid release is expected due to solubility differences

  • rapid precorneal clearance is also possible after release 

32
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To estimate the contribution of the nasal vs conjunctival route to systemic exposure

punctal plug & intranasal dose can be compared to topical

33
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What does a LEFT shift of Hgb O2 dissociation curve indicate?

  • Dec. temperature

  • Dec. PCO2

  • Inc. pH

  • Dec. 2,3-DPG

34
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Is the Hgb/O2 curve sigmoidal?

Yes

35
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What does the x-axis on the Hgb/O2 curve show?

PO2

36
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What does the y-axis on the Hgb/O2 curve show?

Hgb saturation

37
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What is the one difference in symptoms of a myocardial infarction between men and women?

Shoulder pain in women

38
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What treats hypertension?

Diuretics, beta blockers, ARBs

39
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T/F? MI and cardiac arrest are both medical emergencies and are the same thing.

False

40
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Cardiac arrest and MI are because of an issue with what?

MI —> circulation issue

CA —> electrical issue

41
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What is Phase 0 in action potentials?

Rapid depolarization

42
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What is Phase II in action potentials?

Plateau phase

43
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What is Phase III?

Repolarization

44
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What is Phase IV?

Resting membrane potential (not in pacemaker cells though)

45
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What cells are FUNNY channels found in?

Pacemaker cells

46
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Pacemaker cells have which Phases?

IV, 0, III

47
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Gas exchange happens in alveoli and blood of…

Pulmonary capillaries

48
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Do PCs have a refractory period?

No, only contractile cells do

49
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What is the threshold for PCs?

-40mV

50
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What is the threshold for CCs?

-70mV

51
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How much time does it take for the CC to contract?

~200 milliseconds

52
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What is the rising phase of action potentials called?

Depolarization

53
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Do PCs have a resting potential?

No, the FUNNY channel makes it so that there is a continuous influx of charge; i.e. it is always moving towards threshold

54
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Electrical signals in the heart go from ___ to the ___.

SA node → AV node

55
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What ions are responsible for action potentials?

Na+, Ca++, K+

56
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When are cardiac muscles at work?

All the time

57
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Types of cell-cell junctions?

Desmosomes, fasciae adherent, and gap junctions

58
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Where are B and T cells kept?

Bone marrow and thymus; they end up in lymphatic nodes

59
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Where are B cells found?

Cortex of lymph nodes

60
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Where are T cells found?

Medulla of lymph nodes

61
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How many efferent lymphatic vessels are there?

One (lymphatic)

62
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Where are MALT membranes found?

Tonsils, adenoids, bronchus, gut-associated

63
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What is the function of the lymphatic system?

Immune, filtration, and water balance

64
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What causes edema?

Lymphatic system is not absorbing water and it stays in interstitial area

65
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What collects interstitial fluid?

Lymphatic capillaries

66
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Name the 2 ducts.

thoracic and right lymphatic ducts

67
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What way do lymphatic vessels travel?

One direction (no backwards travel)

68
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What moves lymph?

Muscle contraction

69
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What is lymphoma?

Cancer of the lymphatic system

70
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Can the CYP3A4 enzyme be affected by genetic polymorphism?

No (polymorphism)

71
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Gluconeogenesis

Glucose from non-carbohydrate sources

72
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Glucogenolysis

Glycogen → glucose

73
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How many lobules in the liver?

100,000 lobules

74
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How many hepatocytes are there?

1,000,000 hepatocytes

75
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What does biotransformation do for excretion of stuff?

Makes stuff go from nonpolar → polar to increase excretion

76
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What % of glucose is reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?

100% glucose

77
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After how much loss of kidney function is dialysis required?

Once 85-95% function is lost

78
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Does the left or right kidney sit lower in the body?

The right sits lower

79
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Are the efferent or afferent arterioles wider?

Afferent arterioles

80
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What is the name of the capillary that runs length of nephrons?

Peritubular capillary

81
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How many nephrons are there?

100M nephrons

82
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What % of filtrate is reabsorbed at proximal convoluted tubule?

65% filtrate

83
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What is the rest of this equation? excreted =

filtered - reabsorbed + secreted

84
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What is ACE produced in?

It is produced in the lungs

85
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Where is the hormone ADH held in?

Posterior pituitary gland

86
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Is the contraction of skeletal muscles voluntary?

Yes, all movement of the skeletal muscles is voluntary

87
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Which muscles are striated?

All but smooth muscles

88
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Of actin and myosin, which is thick and which is thin?

Actin is thin and myosin is thick

89
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For ATP produced, which filament does it bind to?

It binds to myosin

90
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Is the action potential of the skeletal muscles the same as in the rest of the body?

No, it is not the same

91
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How are signals passed in skeletal muscles?

Electrical → chemical → electrical

92
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What chemical messenger is released from synapse to terminal?

ACh is released

93
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Which band in filaments is dark?

The A band

94
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Tropomyosin is considered the…

the bike chain

95
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Toponin is considered the…

the lock

96
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What releases the lock (troponin)?

Ca++ ions from sarcoplasmic reticulum

97
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What is another name for the CNS?

Neuroaxis

98
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Where do the peripheral nerves of the autonomic nervous system end?

Target organs, not muscle

99
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Is the autonomic nervous sympathetic or parasympathetic?

They are both sympathetic and parasympathetic

100
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Where are first order neurons?

Brainstem and spinal cord