MCQ prep

when obtaining a client’s consent to treatment, you must include which of the following?

all the specific areas to be treated or omitted

an advertisement with respect to an RMT’s practice can contain all the following except:

a testimonial by a client or a former client

osteoarthritis of the left knee is best treated by

swimming program

why should effleurage not be used distal to an area of inflammation, injury, or infection?

if infected, the infection may spread through the entire body

one of the following is not a contraindication to diaphragmatic breathing exercises:

chronic bronchitis

some of the goals of cerebral palsy treatment would include:

decrease sympathetic nervous system firing, increase tissue health

contraindications for joint play include all except:

chronic muscle strain

dupytrene’s contracture characteristically manifests as flexion of the:

4th and 5th phalanges

what is a massage caution for a client who had a joint replacement surgery several years ago?

limited range of motion

which movement will your client perform to shorten the fibers of soleus?

plantar flexion

which movement of the hip will shorten the fibers of the quadratus femoris?

lateral rotation

in regards to developing muscle tension, one would expect the highest tension in which of the following?

eccentric contraction

when treating someone with multiple sclerosis, one should be cautious of:

increasing body temperature

which hormone has a powerful anti-inflammatory action but is damaging to connective tissue?

cortisol

to help produce a better reflex in the lower limb, you should have your client:

clench his teeth

the normal ROM value for plantarflexion is:

50 degrees

even, rhythmic, repetitive application of a technique promotes:

stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system

a contraindication to full range resistance exercise is:

none of the above (contraindications include: the acute stage of healing, paralysis and severe pain on exercising.)

joint play can be indicated:

for pain management and for client’s during pregnancy

the PROM value for elbow flexion is?

135 degrees

with ideal posture in a lateral view, the plumb line should fall:

at the acromion

combined movements of the shoulder can be assessed with?

apley’s scratch test

a negative piriformis length test would show the affected hip as?

held heavily in external rotation

“Q” angle of the knee would best be seen and evaluated in which postural alignment?

anterior

if a therapist suspected knee pain was due to a tight/shortened IT band, which test would not confirm their suspicion?

Clarke’s and Trendelenburg

which AROM of the hip is the largest value?

flexion with a flexed knee

pes cavus would not be seen and evaluated in which postural alignment?

superior

IT band treatments may include?

fascial spreading

where are the regulations for massage therapists regarding professional misconduct?

massage therapy act

a member who is under a legal obligation to file a report of sexual abuse against another member:

• must file a report within 30 days of the date the obligation to report arose or immediately, if they believe the member who is the subject of the report will continue to sexually abuse a client

• may be investigated by the college as they are not in compliance with the RHPA

• may be fined up to $25,000 for an individual on a first offence, and $50,000 for a corporation

• fines can increase to $50,000 for an individual and up to $200,000 for a corporation

which fibre is primarily active when bench pressing?

fast-twitch, type II B

to strengthen your client’s gastrocnemius, ask her to perform:

active resisted plantar flexion while the knee is flexed

which of the following statements is an example of a closed-ended question?

when did the accident happen?

which of the following statements describes a GH dislocation?

separation of the head of the humerus

which of the following is a reflective effect of fine vibrations?

sedation of the nervous system

which scenario is a contraindication to AF ROM?

pain in the acute stage

which of the following conditions can produce edema in the forearm?

ulnar nerve lesion

which of the following muscles contract with an autogenic inhibition stretch of the quadriceps muscle?

quadriceps

which of the following signs and symptoms are typical for pronator teres syndrome?

loss of motor control in the hand

to bring the coracoacromial ligament closer to the surface, what action will roll the humeral head anteriorly, pressing the ligament forward?

extension

which of the following interview questions determines whether the condition is in the acute or in the chronic phase?

onset of the pain

a slip-and-fall on ice forcing the legs into a “split” position may result in a:

groin strain

which tendonitis is very common with overuse of the shoulder in flexion from sports such as tennis or racquetball?

long head bicep tendonitis

what is the most common cause for peripheral nerve injuries?

compression

which advanced technique must be applied directly on the sites of plantar fasciitis lesions?

friction

which of the following manifestations would you not expect to observe in a person with a right thoracic scoliosis?

depressed shoulder on the right

the collecting ducts are the site of which of the following kidney functions?

final concentration of urine in the kidney

which of the following terms describes a specific substance that neutralizes foreign substances?

antibodies

when a client’s head is held in neutral position, painful limitation of the neck movement due to idiopathic global muscle spasm is called:

acute acquired torticollis

which of the following conditions is an indicator for breast massage?

thoracic outlet syndrome

___________ is a chronic inflammation disorder characterized by bronchospasm which is reversible over time either spontaneously or following treatment

asthma

what is the minimum age to provide consent of behalf of an incapable person?

16 years

how often does a massage therapist have to obtain and update a client’s medical history?

once a year

which of the following sets of techniques is indicated on the convex side of the scoliotic curvature?

isometric contractions, tapotement

thomas test results: the hip was observed at 0 degrees of flexion and the knee at 50 degrees of flexion. The therapist can rule out:

iliopsoas shortness

a client with severe hypertension should be:

treated in a position of comfort, using a segmental approach

effects of stroking:

primarily reflexive in nature

the sacroiliac joint test that can be completed in side-lying or supine is:

anterior/posterior gapping test

a mechanical effect:

are responses that include the movement of interstitial fluid

a trigger point referral pattern to the top of the head is associated with:

splenius capitis

a powerful analgesic effect is provided by:

endorphins

cerebral palsy is:

the result of brain injury caused by hypoxia

an RMT suspects radial nerve damage. Motor involvement is confirmed when the RMT observes the following sign:

wrist drop

cryotherapy:

is used to produce local anesthesia

a contraindication to long axis cervical traction is:

• acute injury

• unhealed fractures

• ruptured ligaments

• rheumatoid arthritis, especially in the cervical spine at the C1 or C2 level, and with peripheral nerve lesions and hypermobile joints

a contraindicated exercise for a client with osteoarthritis in the spine is end range:

flexion

this term describes the amount of a drug that enters systemic circulation:

bioavailability

this term refers to the effects of liver processes on a drug that has just entered the blood from the GI tract

first pass effect

Q angle is measured using these landmarks:

ASIS, rectus femoris, patella, tibial tuberosity

which of the following conditions on the health history form constitutes a primary complaint within the scope of practice?

pain in the lower back

right-sided heart failure will likely result in the following outcome:

peripheral edema

how many carpal bones are there in the wrist?

8

which bone is the anterior part of the coxal bone?

pubis

lower motor neuron lesions are characteristics of which of the following disorders:

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

which degree of nerve injury is considered when all layers of the nerve are damaged?

3rd degree

which muscle is attached to the lateral meniscus and assists with unlocking the knee joint?

popliteus

what is the minimum age to give consent to treat?

there is no minimum age

what does a positive sign for a noble compression test indicate?

ITB friction syndrome

when obtaining informed consent prior to assessment and treatment, the therapist must ensure that the consent includes the following ____ elements

6

which movement of the hip will lengthen the fibers of the tensor fasciae latae?

extension, adduction, external rotation

dynamic stretching:

involves flexibility through movement

isotonic exercises are typically used:

later in the rehabilitative program once the tissue has healed

what is the effect of the “rocking technique”

increase sensory input from proprioceptors reflexively reduces muscle tone

which of the following statements about a thermophore is true?

a client should never lie on a thermophore

which exercise would you teach a client with hyperkyphotic posture?

strengthening the upper trapezius muscle

as a massage therapist, you perform a P-ROM on your client and find a mild decrease in rotation of the neck to the left. Which of the following muscles would need to be lengthened?

left trapezius

gentle stroking, light friction and light petrissage are found to be:

calming

direct physcial effects of massage techniques on the tissues they contact are called:

mechanical effects

which of the following would not be effective in relieving a cramp?

heat on the muscle

when is the most appropriate time to explain confidentiality of the health history interview?

before the interview begins

which of the following techniques is contraindicated to apply over venous varicosities?

deep moist heat

a client comes to you complaining of pain in his right side whenever he rotates to the left. During the massage, you notice that he has well defined abdominal muscles. Your assessment with ROM showed a mild decrease in extension of his trunk. Which of the following muscles should you address?

external obliques

a protruding 4th lumbar disc would most likely cause:

sciatica

which tapotement technique involves the client’s tissue being rhythmically and percussively contacted with only the fingertips of both hands?

tapping

when does a massage therapist need consent from the client in regards to health history information?

to release the information

which head positions puts transverse processes and facets at minimum risk?

a rear-end collision with the victim looking straight ahead

which of the following is true of the muscle spindle cell?

when stretched too far and too quickly, it causes the muscle to contract

to perform the medial epicondylitis orthopedic test, palpate your client’s medial epicondyle and then passively ______ her elbow, ____ her wrist, and ______ her forearm.

extend, extend, supinate

active resisted elbow extension and GH extension is an exercise that isolates and strengthens the:

triceps

which are the best massage strokes for breaking down adhesions?

friction